Hello everyone;

Just wondering why did the British become severer in their suppression of the Muslims after 1857 war of independence. ???
The fact is that it wasn't only a Muslim war and the Hindus participated in the same measure.

So why was it that the English wrath fell on the Muslims exclusively???

And even before 1857, the British attitude towards the Hindu populace compared favorably against that reserved for the Muslims.

There are some plausible reasons in my mind but would like to know what the forum thinks...