Qur’anic verses and historical documents reveal that the land of Fadak situated near the Fort of Khaibar, formerly belonging to the Jews, was the personal property of the Holy Prophet (p.b.u.h). It was neither a government property owned by the treasury nor was it war booty. The seventh verse of Surah Hashr, explains the point in detail:

“Whatever Allah has restored to His Apostle from the people of the towns, it is for Allah and for the Apostle, and for the near of kin and orphans and the needy and the wayfarer, so that it may not be a thing taken by turns among the rich of you. . .” (59: 7)

Anyhow.....


If property of Hazrat Muhammad(PBUH) was not for heirs but for all muslims then why Prophet(pbuh) gave it to Hazrat Fatima(s.a) at first place? and if it was given by mistake or by any other circumstances then why they did not confiscate it soon after Prophet's death?

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"One who imagines himself to be all knowing will surely suffer on account of his ignorance" - Imam Ali (AS)



"Among the signs of ignorance is arguing with irrational people" - Imam Hussain (AS)