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Old Monday, June 18, 2012
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What is meant by "Rich Men Have No Fault"
I think it refers to the asymmetrical relationship existing between the rich and the poor. Especially, it prevails within those societies where there are tenuous laws. Take for example our society where people dont point fingers at the rich who commit every crime with impunity in the society because they have the means to circumvent the law, while the poor, despite being innocent, sometime cannot prove their innocence because they dont have the means.

This is what i feel about the quotation. Its my personal view.
We can trust the man of troubles but not on the man of pleasures.
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sarfaraz shami (Monday, June 18, 2012)