Help in comprehending the Question
 

[B] Paper 2002 – The Quaid-e-Azam was against the performance of “a surgical operation” on the provinces because such a step would be a dangerous proposition and would “let loose terrible forces”. In the light of the statement, discuss the division of the Punjab and Bengal.[/B]

Kindly evaluate the answer of this statement. What is the particular era being referred for the Partition of Punjab and Bengal? And what will be its answer? Just a clue would be beneficial to get the point as a whole.

I think the term "surgical operation" is being used as a metaphor for the demarcation of India and Pak (read "radcliff Award").

Era: just before partition and demarcation of boundaries

The idea behind Quaid-e-Azam's reasoning (in short) was that splitting Punjab and Bengal would give way for communal riots and aggravate the Hindu-Muslim animosity. Also the demarcation was unfair as India received major cities such as Calcutta (part of the original Bengal) yielding unfair distribution of wealth and industry - bad for Pakistan in its infancy.

As for the fact that this would "let loose terrible forces": well its true given the immediate riots and mass murders that took place soon after the partition.

This is my understanding. I could be wrong. Hope this helps