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Old Wednesday, January 19, 2011
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Arrow Solved MCQ's Zoology......

Chapter # 01
1. Evolutionary processes have resulted in approximately ______ million species, of which 1.4 million species have been described
A) 2


B) 3


C) 4


D) 100


2. Ideas concerning the theory of organic evolution were published and supported with convincing evidence by Charles Darwin in
A) 1602.


B) 1750.


C) 1859.


D) 1923.


3. Through the year 2000, about 92% of population growth occurred in
A) less developed countries.


B) the United States.


C) Europe.


D) Asia.


4. The one environmental problem that is the root of all other environmental problems is
A) pollution.


B) depletion of fossil fuels.


C) deforestation.


D) over population.


5. The first part of the binomial name of an animal is the
A) species.


B) genus.


C) family.


D) order.


6. The study of interactions between organisms and their environment is
A) cytology.


B) physiology.


C) ecology.


D) systematics.


7. The study of birds is
A) ornithology.


B) mammalogy.


C) ichthyology.


D) herpetology.



8. Evolutionary theory helps explain
A) the diversity of life.


B) the relationships within animal groups.


C) the behavior of animals.


D) All of the above are correct.


9. The human population is expected to exceed ____________________ by the year 2010.
A) 5 billion


B) 10 billion


C) 250 million


D) 6 billion




10. By the year 2001, the human population of the earth surpassed the benchmark of 6 billion and is now 6.3 billion
A) True


B) False


Answers are::::
1>c
2>c
3>a
4>d
5>b
6>c
7>a
8>d
9>b
10>a
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  #2  
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Chapter # 01
1. Evolutionary processes have resulted in approximately ______ million species, of which 1.4 million species have been described
A) 2


B) 3


C) 4


D) 100


2. Ideas concerning the theory of organic evolution were published and supported with convincing evidence by Charles Darwin in
A) 1602.


B) 1750.


C) 1859.


D) 1923.


3. Through the year 2000, about 92% of population growth occurred in
A) less developed countries.


B) the United States.


C) Europe.


D) Asia.


4. The one environmental problem that is the root of all other environmental problems is
A) pollution.


B) depletion of fossil fuels.


C) deforestation.


D) over population.


5. The first part of the binomial name of an animal is the
A) species.


B) genus.


C) family.


D) order.


6. The study of interactions between organisms and their environment is
A) cytology.


B) physiology.


C) ecology.


D) systematics.


7. The study of birds is
A) ornithology.


B) mammalogy.


C) ichthyology.


D) herpetology.



8. Evolutionary theory helps explain
A) the diversity of life.


B) the relationships within animal groups.


C) the behavior of animals.


D) All of the above are correct.


9. The human population is expected to exceed ____________________ by the year 2010.
A) 5 billion


B) 10 billion


C) 250 million


D) 6 billion




10. By the year 2001, the human population of the earth surpassed the benchmark of 6 billion and is now 6.3 billion
A) True


B) False


Answers are::::
1>c
2>c
3>a
4>d
5>b
6>c
7>a
8>d
9>b
10>a
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Arrow Solved MCQ's Chapter 2 & 3

Chapter # 02

11. Prokaryotic cells do not have
A) centrioles


B) DNA.


C) cytoskeletons.


D) cell walls.


12. All eukaryotic cells have three basic parts. Which of the following is not a basic part of a typical eukaryotic cell?
A) nucleus


B) cytoplasm


C) plasma membrane


D) nucleoid


13. Which of the following is not a function of the cell's glycocalyx?
A) transport


B) cell-to-cell recognition


C) behavior


D) recognition


14. The ability of the plasma membrane to let some substances in and keep others out is called
A) homeostasis.


B) selective permeability.


C) facilitated diffusion.


D) osmosis.



15. Energy is required for
A) simple diffusion.


B) facilitated diffusion.


C) osmosis.


D) active transport.



16. The bulk movement of material into a cell by the formation of a vesicle is called
A) simple diffusion.


B) facilitated diffusion.


C) endocytosis.


D) osmosis.


17. If hydrostatic pressure is used to move a molecule through a membrane, this is termed
A) filtration.


B) osmosis.


C) active transport.


D) endocytosis.


18. __________ are the non-membrane bound structures that are the sites for protein synthesis
A) Centrioles


B) Lysosomes


C) Ribosomes


D) Vacuoles


19. Which of the following organelles functions in the digestion of materials?
A) lysosomes


B) ribosomes


C) vesicles


D) microfilaments


20. Which of the following is not found within a mitochondrion?
A) DNA


B) matrix


C) cristae


D) RNA



21. which of the following is not part of cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cells?
A) microtubules
B) microfilaments
C) intermediate filaments
D) cilia

22. The centrioles arise from the
A) microtubule-organizing center.
B) microfilament-organizing center.
C) basal body.
D) nuclear envelope.

23. The type of connective tissue that stores lipids is called
A) adipose tissue.
B) blood tissue.
C) epithelial tissue.
D) storage tissue.

24. Cells involved with protection, support, and nourishment within the nervous system are called
A) neurons.
B) glial cells.
C) impulse conducting cells.
D) nerves.

25. __________ are the functional units of an animal's body.
A) Cells
B) Tissues
C) Organs
D) Systems
26. The highest level or organization in an animal's body is the __________ level.
A) Cells
B) Tissues
C) Organ
D) Organ system
27. All of the following are types of connective tissue except
A) Blood
B) Bone
C) Nervous
D) Cartilage
28. The heart is a good example of an organ system.
A) True
B) False
29. Intercalated disks would be found in smooth muscle cells.
A) True
B) False
30. Collagenous fibers would be found in fibrocartilage
A) True
B) False
31. Simple squamous epithelium is found in the air sacs of the lungs.
A) True
B) False
32. Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the surface of the skin.
A) True
B) False
33. Both cilia and flagella function in movement.
A) true
B) false
34. The Golgi apparatus consists of stacks of cisternae
A) True
B) False


Answers::::
11.a
12.d
13.a
14.b
15.d
16.c
17.a
18.c
19.a
20.d
21.
22.a
23.a
24.b
25.c
26.d
27.c
28.b
29.b
30.a
31.a
32.a
33.a
34.a


Chapter # 03
35. The period from the time a cell is produced until it completes mitosis is called the
A) mitotic phase.
B) cell cycle.
C) cytokinesis phase.
D) G1 phase.
36. Most of the cell cycle is occupied by the

A) G1 phase.


B) G2 phase.


C) S phase.


D) interphase.

37. Chromosome replication occurs during the __________ of mitosis.
A) G1 phase.


B) G2 phase.


C) S phase.


D) interphase.

38. A copy of a chromosome produced by replication is called a
A) chromatid.


B) daughter chromosome.


C) sister chromosome.


D) both b and c.

39. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle are attached to the
A) kinetochore.


B) centromere.


C) centrosome.


D) all of the above (a-c).


40. Chromosomes become visible with the light microscope during __________ phase.
A) prophase


B) metaphase


C) anaphase


D) telophase

41. The mitotic spindle disassembles during what phase of mitosis?
A) prophase


B) metaphase


C) anaphase


D) telophase

42. Chromosome replication occurs during the __________ of mitosis.
A) G1 phase


B) G2 phase


C) S phase


D) interphase

43. During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up side-by-side in a process called
A) genetic recombination.


B) meiosis II.


C) synapsis.


D) crossing over.

44. Crossing over results
A) synapsis.


B) syngamy.


C) genetic recombination.


D) dyad formation.


45. Spermatogenesis gives rise to __________ sperm cells.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
46. In the DNA molecule, the base adenine pairs with the base
A) guanine.


B) cytosine.


C) thymine.


D) uracil.

46. A DNA nucleotide consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a base.


B) ribose.


C) deoxyribose.


D) phosphate.

47. During protein synthesis, ______ is produced in the nucleus and carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm.
A) transfer RNA


B) messenger RNA


C) ribosomal RNA


D) deoxynucleotide

48. _______ involves the formation of a polypeptide chain at the:______.
A) Transcription/nucleus


B) Transcription/ribosome


C) Translation/nucleolus


D) Translation/ribosome

49. A sequence of three bases in mRNA that codes for an amino acid is a
A) nucleotide.


B) nucleoside.


C) codon.


D) anticodon.


50. The ______ carries amino acids to the ribosome where a polypeptide is assembled.
A) transfer RNA


B) messenger RNA


C) ribosomal RNA


D) deoxynucleotide


51. During protein synthesis at the ribosome, the ______ pairs with:
A) nucleotide/nucleoside


B) codon/anticodon


C) codon/amino acid


D) mRNA/DNA

52. All of the following statements regarding DNA and RNA are true except one. Select the false statement
A) RNA is single stranded, and DNA is double stranded.


B) RNA contains the base thymine, and DNA contains the base uracil.


C) RNA is found in the nucleus and cytoplasm, and DNA is mainly in the nucleus.


D) RNA contains the sugar ribose, and DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.

53. Which of the following are pyrimidine bases found in RNA?
A) adenine and guanine


B) cytosine and thymine


C) adenine and uracil


D) cytosine and uracil

54. DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because
A) it is remarkably error free.


B) it results in one new DNA molecule and one parental molecule.


C) it results in two DNA molecules, each consisting of one new and one parental strand.


D) it results in two completely new parental molecules.

55. The fact that more than one codon in mRNA can code for a particular amino acid is referred to as
A) degeneracy.


B) homology.


C) wobble.


D) antiparallel.

56. Which of the following occurs during transcription?
A) Messenger RNA is produced.


B) Transfer RNA delivers amino acids to a ribosome.


C) Codons pair with anticodons.


D) A new strand of DNA is synthesized.

57. Which of the following occurs at the beginning of translation?
A) A UGA codon is aligned with the P site of the ribosome.


B) An AUG codon is aligned with the P site of the ribosome.


C) RNA polymerase recognizes a promotor.


D) Two strands of DNA are separated.

58. Homologous chromosomes carry genes for the same traits, but not necessarily for the same expression of the traits
A) True
B) False





59. Genetic recombination or crossing over is a major form of genetic variation.
A) True
B) False
60. Prophase begins once daughter chromosomes appear at opposite poles of the cell.
A) True
B) False
61. The 5' end of one DNA strand would be directly across from the 3' end of the sister strand. The term antiparallel refers to this condition
A) True
B) False
62. There are 20 different codons, one for each naturally occurring amino acid.
A) True
B) False
63. Point mutations are the source of new genetic material and account for evolutionary change. Most point mutations are detrimental
A) True
B) False
64. Nondisjunction usually results in portions of chromosomes breaking and reattaching in novel ways.
A) True
B) False
65. An animal that is heterozygous for a particular trait would possess two alleles for that trait.
A) True
B) False
66. Independent assortment is explained by events occurring during the second division of meiosis.
A) True
B) False
67. The visual expression of alleles is called the phenotype
A) True
B) False
68. Codominance occurs when two alleles are expressed equally and the offspring resemble neither parent
A) True
B) False


Answers::::

35.b
36.d
37.c
38.a
39.a
40.a
41.d
42.c
43.c
44.c
45.c
46.d
47.c
48.b
49.b
50.d
51.c
52.a
53.b
54.b
55.d
56.c
57.a
58.a
59.b
60.a
61.a
62.b
63.a
64.b
65.a
66.b
67.a
68.b
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Arrow Solved MCQ's Chapter # 4

Chapter # 04
69. Which of the following individuals was an early proponent of evolution? Even though his explanation of how change in species occurs was incorrect, he was steadfast in promoting ideas of evolutionary change.
A) Alfred Russel Wallace


B) Charles Darwin


C) Jean Baptiste Lamarck


D) Godfrey H. Hardy

70. According to Charles Darwin, evolution is most closely related to which concept?
A) natural selection


B) scientific creationism


C) inheritance of acquired characteristics


D) absence of change in a species

71. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain, rivers, volcanoes, and geological uplift—just as it has been in the past—is known as
A) uniformitarianism.


B) phyletic gradualism.


C) punctuated equilibrium.


D) natural selection.

72. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain, rivers, volcanoes, and geological uplift—just as it has been in the past—was developed by
A) Charles Darwin.


B) Alfred Russel Wallace.


C) James Hutton and Charles Lyell.


D) John Henslow.

73. The discovery of fossils of horses, giant armadillos, and giant sloths in South America suggested to Charles Darwin that:
A) horses evolved in Europe and were brought to America by early explorers.


B) the species composition of the earth has changed through geological history.


C) little change in South American life forms occurred since they originated.


D) catastrophic events led to the extinction of mammals in South America.

74. The formation of new species from an ancestral species in response to the opening of new habitats is:
A) neutral selection.


B) natural selection.


C) neo-Darwinism.


D) adaptive radiation.

75. All of the following are a part of the theory of evolution by natural selection except one. Select the exception
A) All organisms have a far greater reproductive potential than is ever realized.


B) Inherited variations arise as a result of encountering an environmental challenge that must be overcome.


C) There is a constant struggle for existence, and many individuals die.


D) Adaptive traits are perpetuated in subsequent generations because individuals with less adaptive traits are less likely to reproduce than individuals with more adaptive traits.

76. The combination of Darwinian evolutionary theory and population genetics is referred to as the:
A) modern synthesis or neo-Darwinism.


B) biogeography.


C) adaptation theory.


D) adaptive radiation.

77. The development of pesticide resistance in crop pests is an example of
A) macroevolution.


B) convergent evolution.


C) microevolution.


D) minievolution.

78. Structures and processes that are derived from a common ancestor are said to be
A) analogous.


B) homologous.


C) convergent.


D) divergent.

79. The study of fossils is called
A) geology.


B) biogeography.


C) comparative anatomy.


D) paleontology.

80. The theory of uniformitarianism was important for Charles Darwin's ideas because it indicated that the earth was much older than 6,000 years and that the face of the earth changed gradually over its history.
A) True


B) False

81. Ancestral finches encountered habitats in the Galapagos Islands that were devoid of other birds and predators. They rapidly multiplied and filled ecological roles that were unusual for finches on the mainland. This account is an example of adaptive radiation
A) True


B) False

82. Natural selection is a positive force that selects from individuals with adaptive traits, allowing them to reproduce
A) True


B) False

83. Evolutionary adaptations lead to perfection in a species
A) True


B) False

84. Variations on which natural selection acts arise as a result of random mutations. A new variation may, or may not, be adaptive.
A) True


B) False

85. In a fossil bed, older fossils would be found above younger fossils.
A) True


B) False

86. Natural selection involves detrimental traits being eliminated from a population by the failure of the organism containing them to reproduce.
A) True


B) False

87. An adaptation present in an organism in one environment may be maladaptive in another environment
A) True


B) False

88. Over long periods of time, microevolutionary changes may result in macroevolution
A) True


B) False

89. New structures and processes are usually the result of evolutionary changes in existing structures and processes
A) True


B) False

90. The results of convergent evolution are correctly depicted in tree diagrams
A) True


B) False



Answers:::::

69.c
70.a
71.a
72.c
73.b
74.d
75.b
76.a
77.c
78.b
79.d
80.a
81.a
82.b
83.b
84.a
85.b
86.a
87.a
88.a
89.a
90.b
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Arrow Chapter # 05

1. A change in the frequency of alleles in a population is the definition of
A) natural selection.


B) genetic drift.


C) evolution.


D) gene flow.

2. The study of genetic events that occur in gene pools is called
A) evolutionary genetics.


B) population genetics.


C) gene pool biology.


D) allopatry.

3. If the requirements of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem are all met, then
A) evolution is occurring rapidly.


B) evolution is occurring slowly.


C) evolution is not occurring.


D) gene frequencies are changing.

4. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Evolution is always occurring in all populations.


B) Evolution occurs in virtually all populations at some point in their history.


C) Evolution rarely occurs in any population.


D) Evolution never occurs.

5. Two tortoises are caught on a mat of floating vegetation and get carried out to sea. Their mat happens to land on a volcanic island that is inhabited by a small population of the same species. Breeding with the island tortoise population introduces new alleles that add to the genetic diversity of tortoises on the island. This account is an example of
A) genetic drift.


B) gene flow.


C) natural selection.


D) neutral selection.






6. After a bottleneck event has occurred

A) the genetic diversity of a population is greater.


B) the genetic diversity of a population is decreased.


C) the size of the population always increases.


D) the size of the population always decreases.






7. When chance events increase or decrease the frequencies of alleles in a population, _______ has occurred.
A) genetic drift


B) natural selection


C) random mating


D) gene flow

8. From the perspective of a population, mutations are positive events because
A) they weed out less fit individuals.


B) they provide new genetic variations that can help ensure the survival of the species.


C) most mutations make individuals stronger.


D) they are always expressed when they occur.

9. When a geographical barrier divides members of a population, ______ speciation may occur
A) sympatric


B) allopatric


C) stabilizing


D) directional

10. A mutation that caused a change in courtship behavior occurred in, and spread among, a few members of a population of cranes. This change in courtship behavior prevents those that have the mutation from mating with those that do not have the mutation, even though the two groups share the same breeding territory. This mutation may cause _________ speciation
A) sympatric


B) allopatric


C) stabilizing


D) directional

11. The punctuated equilibrium model of evolution describes the theory that
A) evolution occurs very slowly and steadily over long periods of time.


B) evolution occurs at a constant, rapid rate.


C) evolution occurs rapidly for short periods of time and then a population undergoes very little change for long periods of time.


D) evolution does not occur.

12. Natural selection that narrows the phenotypic range by selecting against phenotypic extremes is called
A) disruptive selection.


B) stabilizing selection.


C) directional selection.


D) neutral selection.

13. Sickle-cell anemia was maintained in African populations because the heterozygote was resistant to malaria. Both homozygotes were selected against by severe sickling or susceptibility to malaria. This example illustrates
A) directional selection.


B) disruptive selection.


C) neutral selection.


D) heterozygote superiority.

14. All genes in an organism do not necessarily change at the same rate. Most cats, for example, are easily recognized as cats. These traits have been conserved in evolution. Other traits (e.g., length of the tail, pelage, and stature) vary from species to species. This is an example of
A) molecular evolution.


B) mosaic evolution.


C) gene duplication.


D) phyletic gradualism.

15. In order for speciation to occur, some members of a population must be reproductively isolated from other members of the population
A) True


B) False

16. Genetic drift is most likely to occur in large populations
A) True


B) False

17. The change in the frequency of body color alleles in peppered moths in England during the industrial revolution was an example of directional selection
A) True


B) False

18. The formation of a physical barrier that divides one population into two groups is an example of postmating isolation
A) True


B) False

19. An allele that has been conserved evolutionarily would be present in most members of a group
A) True


B) False

20. Phyletic gradualism is attractive to many paleontologists because it explains the absence of fossils that document transitional forms between related organisms
A) True


B) False

21. Speciation that occurs in small, local populations is called parapatric speciation
A) True


B) False

22. Evolution invariably leads to some kind of improvement in a species
A) True


B) False



Answers:::::

1.c
2.b
3.c
4.b
5.b
6.b
7.a
8.b
9.b
10.a
11.c
12.b
13.d
14.b
15.a
16.b
17.a
18.b
19.a
20.b
21.a
22.b
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Thumbs up Chapter # 06

1. For an aquatic animal, the amount of oxygen dissolved in the water may determine where the animal can live. For this animal, dissolved oxygen is a/an
A) tolerance factor.


B) acclimator.


C) limiting factor.


D) optimum factor.

2. For an aquatic animal, the range of values for dissolved oxygen that will support life is called the
A) range of optimum.


B) tolerance range.


C) existence range.


D) home range.

3. All of the following contribute to the energy budget of an animal EXCEPT one. Select the exception
A) existence energy--the energy it takes to survive


B) resistance energy--the energy it takes to resist change in the environment


C) productive energy--the energy it takes to grow and reproduce


D) excretory energy--the energy lost through feces and excretion

4. Human populations in developed countries display type ______ survivorship curves.
A) I


B) II


C) III


D) IV

5. Which of the following sequences illustrate exponential growth
A) 2--->4--->6--->8


B) 2--->3--->4--->5


C) 2--->4--->8--->16


D) 2--->4--->10--->25

6. Evolution in which each of two species exerts a strong influence on the other species is called
A) contingency.


B) parallel evolution.


C) coevolution.


D) convergent evolution.

7. A symbiotic relationship in which one member of a relationship benefits and the second member is neither helped nor harmed is
A) mutualism.


B) commensalism.


C) parasitism.


D) predation.

8. The population size a particular environment can support is called the environment's
A) environmental resistance.


B) population structure.


C) biotic potential.


D) carrying capacity.

9. Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?
A) one butterfly species resembling another distasteful species


B) the stripes on a zebra


C) the stripes on a tiger


D) the contrasting color pattern of a skunk

10. When two organisms live in close association and both organisms benefit from the association, the relationship is:
A) mutualism.


B) parasitism.


C) commensalism.


D) mimicry.

11. Two male redwing blackbirds are competing for a breeding territory and female redwings. This example depicts
A) interspecific competition.


B) intraspecific competition.


C) coevolution.


D) competitive exclusion.

12. Most natural populations exhibit type _______ population growth.
A) I


B) II


C) III


D) IV

13. All populations living in an area make up a/an
A) community ecosystem.


B) community.


C) habitat.


D) niche.

14. A community and its physical surroundings make up a/an
A) biome.


B) ecosystem.


C) habitat.


D) niche.

15. The dominant members of a community often change the community in predictable ways in a process called
A) spatial structuring.


B) temporal structuring.


C) dispersal.


D) succession.

16. The final community in a sere is called the
A) climax community.


B) primary community.


C) secondary community.


D) sere.

17. The first trophic level of an ecosystem is made up of
A) free organic molecules


B) decomposers


C) consumers


D) producers

18. The ______ of a species includes all the attributes of its life-style
A) niche


B) habitat


C) range


D) diversity

19. Overall, about ______ percent of the food consumed at one trophic level is converted into new biomass.
A) 5


B) 10


C) 20


D) 60

20. Assuming that 1,000 units of energy are available at the producer level of a stream ecosystem, how many units of energy would be available in the fourth trophic level (e.g., leaf material--->mayfly--->stonefly--->small mouth bass)?
A) 10 units


B) 1 unit


C) 100 units


D) 0.1 unit

21. All of the following statements regarding energy in ecosystems are true except one. Select the exception
A) Most energy at one trophic level is eventually radiated into the outer atmosphere as heat and will never be reused.


B) An ecosystem can support more biomass at higher trophic levels than at lower trophic levels.


C) Larger populations can be supported if organisms feed at lower trophic levels.


D) Consumption is never 100 percent efficient.

22. The nonliving reservoir for nitrogen in a terrestrial ecosystem is/are
A) gaseous nitrogen in the atmosphere.


B) dead animals and plants.


C) nitrogen dissolved in water of the oceans.


D) bedrock.

23. The nonliving reservoir for elements such as sulfur, phosphorus, and calcium is/are
A) the atmosphere.


B) bones.


C) ocean water.


D) the earth (soil, rocks etc.).

24. All of the following are true of the carbon cycle except one. Select the exception
A) Most carbon is incorporated into living tissues by photosynthesis.


B) Combustion of fossil fuels returns carbon to the atmosphere.


C) The rate at which carbon has been accumulating in the atmosphere has been decreasing dramatically in the last 50 years.


D) Carbon is rarely a limiting factor for animals.

25. The variety of living organisms in an ecosystem is called
A) ecological variation.


B) ecosystem strength.


C) biodiversity.


D) ecosystem wealth.

26. Biological magnification refers to the
A) diversity of plants and animals in an ecosystem.


B) increase in energy present in higher trophic levels in an ecosystem.


C) increase in numbers of animals at higher trophic levels in an ecosystem.


D) concentration of matter in tissues of animals at higher trophic levels in an ecosystem.

27. Aestivation is a time of decreased metabolism and lowered body temperature during daily activity cycles, during the summer or hot, dry time of the year.
A) True


B) False

28. Hibernation is a time of decreased metabolism and lowered body temperatures that may last for weeks or months and occurs in mammals such as rodents, bats, and bears, during cold periods
A) True


B) False

29. A type of camouflage that occurs when an animal takes on the color patterns in its environment to blend in with the surroundings is called countershading
A) True


B) False

30. A host that harbors the adult stage of a parasite is called the definitive host.
A) True


B) False

31. In the carbon cycle, respiration returns carbon to its reservoir in the atmosphere.
A) True


B) False

32. The age pyramid of a developing country (e.g., India) has a very wide base with large numbers of individuals in the youngest age groups.
A) True


B) False

33. The current U.S. population is about 280 million, and it continues to grow because of an increasing birth rate
A) True


B) False

34. The accumulation of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to the depletion of the ozone layer and an increased risk of skin cancer
A) True


B) False



Answers:::::

1.c
2.b
3.b
4.a
5.c
6.c
7.b
8.d
9.d
10.a
11.b
12.c
13.b
14.b
15.d
16.a
17.b
18.a
19.b
20.b
21.b
22.a
23.d
24.c
25.c
26.d
27.a
28.b
29.a
30.a
31.a
32.a
33.b
34.b
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Lightbulb Chapter # 07

1. ______ is the study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and the evolutionary relationships among them
A) Systematics


B) Nomenclature


C) Biogeography


D) Bhylogenetics

2. A group of animals that shares a particular set of characteristics forms an assemblage called a/an
A) intron.


B) photon.


C) exon.


D) taxon.

3. Which of the following sequences is arranged from broad to more specific?
A) kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species


B) kingdom, phylum, class, order, domain, family, genus, species


C) domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species


D) domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
4. Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of the water penny beetle?
A) Psephenus herricki


B) Psephenus Herricki


C) Psephenus Herricki


D) Psephenus herricki

5. Prokaryotic organisms that live in extreme environments, such as high-temperature rift valleys on the ocean floor, belong to the domain
A) Protista.


B) Eubacteria.


C) Archaea.


D) Eukarya.

6. Animalia can be distinguished from Plantae because
A) animals are heterotrophic.


B) animal cells have cell walls.


C) plants are prokaryotic.


D) plants obtain nutrients by absorption.

7. A taxonomic character is
A) any trait of an animal.


B) any genetic trait.


C) any genetic trait that can be measured.


D) any genetic trait that determines an anatomical feature of an animal.

8. A taxonomic grouping that is derived from a single ancestor but does not include all members of the family group is called a ______ group
A) paraphyletic


B) polyphyletic


C) monophyletic


D) diphyletic

9. The goal of systematic studies is to arrange animals into
A) monophyletic groups.


B) polyphyletic groups.


C) paraphyletic groups.


D) outgroups.

10. A character that can be used to distinguish one group of animals from another is called a
A) synapomorphy.


B) symplesiomorphy.


C) paraphyletic character.


D) polyphyletic character.

11. A structure that is near the plane that divides an animal into equal left and right halves is
A) medial in position.


B) anterior in position.


C) lateral in position.


D) distal in position.

12. The development of a coelom in an animal is always associated with
A) bilateral symmetry.


B) asymmetry.


C) diploblastic organization.


D) triploblastic organization.

13. The dorsal surface of a frog is at the frog's
A) rear end.


B) head end.


C) back.


D) belly.


14. The Eubacteria are the most primitive life forms known
A) True


B) False

15. In a monophyletic grouping, there is often more than one kind of ancestral animal
A) True


B) False

16. Triploblastic animals whose mesodermally derived tissues form a relatively solid mass of cells between ectodermally and endodermally derived tissues are said to be acoelomate
A) True


B) False

17. 17. The formation of a distinct head is called cephalization and is usually associated with bilateral symmetry

A) True


B) False

18. The ankle is distal to the knee
A) True


B) False

19. The oral end of a sea anemone contains its tentacles and mouth
A) True


B) False

20. A coelom is a body cavity that is completely surrounded by mesodermally derived tissues
A) True


B) False

21. A transverse plane divides a bilateral animal into left and right mirror images.
A) True


B) False




Answers:::::

1.a
2.d
3.c
4.d
5.c
6.a
7.b
8.a
9.a
10.a
11.a
12.d
13.c
14.b
15.a
16.a
17.a
18.a
19.a
20.b
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Lightbulb Chapter # 08

1. Which of the following is characteristic of protozoa?
A) polyphyletic


B) some are autotrophs


C) some are heterotrophs


D) all of the above (a-c)

2. Reproduction in protozoa involves
A) binary fission.


B) asexual reproduction.


C) sexual reproduction.


D) all of the above (a-c).

3. Asexual reproduction that occurs in protozoa includes all of the following except
A) budding.


B) schizogony.


C) multiple fission.


D) conjugation.

4. The type of symbiotic relationship where both species benefit is termed
A) parasitism.


B) commensalism.


C) mutualism.


D) symbiosis.

5. The specialized region in protozoa that is analogous to a mouth is the
A) vacuole.
B) cytopyge.


C) food vacuole.


D) cytopharynx.

6. The phylum Sarcomastigophora has all of the following characteristics except
A) unicellar or colonial.


B) locomotion by flagella, pseudopodia, or both.


C) autotrophic, saprozoic, or heterotrophic.


D) apical complex for penetrating host cells.

7. Which of the following do not belong to the phylum Phytomastigophorea?
A) Gymnodinium.


B) Euglena.


C) Trypanosoma.


D) Volvox.

8. Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by
A) trypanosomes.


B) Amoeba.


C) euglenoids.


D) all of the above (a-c).

9. Which of the following is not a type of pseudopodium found in the amoebae?
A) lobopodia


B) filopodia


C) reticulopodia


D) rizopodia

10. Which of the following is not a marine protozoan?
A) foraminiferans


B) heliozoans


C) radiolarians


D) Giardia

11. When schizogony produces merozoites, it is called
A) gametogony.


B) merogony.


C) sporogony.


D) sexual reproduction.

12. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, merozoites are formed in the
A) mosquito gut.
B) red blood cells.


C) liver.


D) spleen.

13. The disease pebrine that occurs in silk worms is caused by members of the phylum
A) Myxozoa.


B) Acetospora.


C) Microspora.


D) Ciliophora.

14. Toxoplasmosis is a common disease that often occurs in AIDS patients
A) True
B) False
15. In ciliated protozoans, the defensive structures are the trichocysts
A) True
B) False
16. Ciliates reproduce sexually by binary fission
A) True
B) False
17. Based on ribosomal RNA sequences, the protozoans appear to be a polyphyletic group
A) True
B) False
18. Based on 18S ribosomal RNA sequences, the microsporans are closely related to the ciliates
A) True
B) False
19. Most ciliates are free living
A) True
B) False
20. Ciliates have four kinds of nuclei.
A) True
B) False
21. Cilia are generally similar to flagella except that they are much longer
A) True
B) False
22. The most important species in the phylum Apicomplexa are members of the class Sporozoea (e.g., Plasmodium).
A) True
B) False
23. Giardiasis is contracted by drinking untreated water from streams and lakes, typically in mountainous areas, particularly where there are a great number of hikers and back-packers
A) True
B) False
24. Tsetse flies are the intermediate host for the protozoan (Giardia spp.) that causes giardiasis
A) True
B) False
25. Volvox is a colonial protozoan
A) True
B) False


Answers:::::

1.d
2.d
3.d
4.c
5.c
6.d
7.c
8.a
9.d
10.d
11.b
12.c
13.c
14.a
15.a
16.b
17.a
18.b
19.a
20.b
21.b
22.a
23.a
24.b
25.a
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Arrow Chapter # 09

1. Multicellular life has been a part of life on earth for approximately ______ years
A) 50 million


B) 100 million


C) 550 million


D) 1.5 billion

2. The first animals may have arisen from a large multinucleate cell that subsequently formed plasma membranes within the cell to produce a small multicellular organism. This idea is known as the ______ hypothesis
A) colonial


B) syncytial


C) membrane


D) Precambrian

3. Which of the following is a fossil formation in British Columbia containing about 20 animal body forms that are not assigned to any modern animal phyla?
A) Burgess Shale


B) Ediacara formation


C) Tommotian formation


D) Gemmule formation

4. All of the following are characteristic of members of the phylum Porifera except one. Select the exception
A) asymmetrical


B) three cell types


C) central cavity, or a series of branching chambers, through which water circulates during filter feeding.


D) diploblastic tissue organization

5. Which of the following cell types is involved with creating water currents during filter feeding of a sponge?
A) pinacocytes


B) choanocytes


C) porocytes


D) mesenchyme cells

6. Which of the following cell types is involved with secreting skeletal elements of a sponge?
A) pinacocytes


B) choanocytes


C) porocytes


D) ameboid/mesenchymal cells

7. Which of the following cell types is involved with regulating water movements through a sponge?
A) pinacocytes


B) choanocytes


C) porocytes


D) mesenchyme cells

8. In an ascon sponge, choanocytes
A) line radial canals that branch off the spongocoel.


B) line the spongocoel directly.


C) are found in flagellated chambers.


D) line incurrent canals.

9. In a sycon sponge, the body wall appears to be
A) highly folded.


B) thick and perforated by a highly branched canal system.


C) unfolded and not perforated by a branched canal system.


D) a single cell layer thick.

10. The most complex sponges have a body organization called
A) sycon.


B) leucon.


C) ascon.


D) mycon.

11. All of the following are characteristic of members of the phylum Cnidaria except one. Select the exception
A) radial or biradial symmetry


B) nervous system in the form of a nerve net


C) choanocytes used in defense, feeding, and attachment


D) gelatinous mesoglea located between epidermal and gastrodermal tissue layers

12. In the life cycle of a member of the class Hydrozoa, for example Obelia
A) the polyp stage is always predominant.


B) the medusa stage is always predominant.


C) the medusa and polyp are both usually present.


D) nematocysts are absent.

13. Members of the class Scyphozoa include
A) anemones.


B) corals.


C) Hydra.


D) jellyfish.

14. The largest and most prominent stage in the life cycle of most members of the class Scyphozoa is the
A) medusa.


B) planula.


C) polyp.


D) ephyra.

15. The class of Cnidaria that includes anemones is
A) Hydrozoa.


B) Scyphozoa.


C) Anthozoa.


D) Calcarea.

16. Most of the history of multicellular life on earth has been one of extinction rather than the origin of new kinds of animal life
A) True
B) False
17. Members of the class Scyphozoa have life histories in which the medusa stage is produced asexually from the strobila
A) True
B) False
18. The coelom of cnidarians functions in digestion, the exchange of respiratory gases, and discharge of gametes
A) True
B) False
19. Cells are never present in the mesoglea of cnidarians.
A) True
B) False
20. Cnidocytes produce nematocysts that are discharged on stimulation of a cnidocil. Cnidocytes are produced only in members of the phylum Cnidaria
A) True
B) False
21. In many members of the class Hydrozoa, the gonozooid is a reproductive polyp that produces medusae by budding
A) True
B) False
22. Some members of the class Cubozoa have nematocysts that are dangerous to humans
A) True
B) False
23. Hydrozoan polyps have mesenteries that bear nematocysts, a mouth that leads to a pharynx, and a mesoglea containing ameboid mesenchyme cells.
A) True
B) False
24. Some members of the class Anthozoa are monoecious. In these animals, the male gametes often mature before the female gametes, thus preventing self-fertilization. This condition is called protandry
A) True
B) False



Answers:::::


1.c
2.b
3.a
4.d
5.b
6.d
7.c
8.b
9.b
10.a
11.b
12.c
13.c
14.d
15.a
16.c
17.a
18.a
19.b
20.b
21.a
22.a
23.a
24.b
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Lightbulb Chapter # 10

1. Which of the following is not an acoelomate?
A) Platyhelminthes
B) Rotifera


C) Gastrotrichia


D) Turbellaria

2. Three important characteristics first appeared in the acoelomates. Which of the following is not one of them?
A) bilateral symmetry


B) a true mesoderm


C) an excretory system


D) nervous tissues

3. Acoelomates lack a body cavity because the __________ cells completely fills the area between the outer epidermis and digestive tract.
A) parenchymal


B) muscular


C) nervous


D) ectodermal

4. Which of the following classes is typically not parasitic?
A) Turbellaria


B) Monogenea


C) Trematoda


D) Cestoidea

5. Marine ribbon worms are found within the phylum:
A) Turbellaria


B) Monogenea


C) Nemertea


D) Gastrotricha

6. Which of the following would you find either living a free-living life style or living in the space between bottom sediments in freshwater?
A) Gastrotricha


B) Nemertea


C) Monogenea


D) Turbellaria

7. Sexual maturity in a larval body form is called
A) incomplete organization.


B) complete organization.


C) paedomorphosis.


D) all of the above (a-c).

8. Characteristics of the phylum Platyhelminthes include all of the following except
A) usually flattened dorsoventrally.


B) usually unsegmented worms.


C) incomplete gut.


D) many organ systems present.

9. Most turbellarians, such as the common planarian,
A) are carnivores.


B) will also feed as herbivores.


C) have chemoreceptors that help them detect food.


D) all of the above (a-c).

10. Which is not part of the protonephridial system in a turbellarian?
A) nephridiopore


B) flame cell


C) nephron


D) excretory tube

11. A few turbellarians have a free swimming larva termed a
A) Muller's larva.


B) planula larva.


C) pncomiricidium.


D) miricidium.

12. Monogenetic flukes are so named because they
A) have only one generation in their life cycle.


B) have a life cycle where only one adult develops from one egg.


C) are solely external parasites.


D) both a and b.

13. A small group of flukes that are primarily internal parasites of molluscs are the
A) subclass Aspidogastrea.


B) subclass Digenea.


C) class Monogenea.


D) class Cestoidea.

14. The scientific name of the Chinese liver fluke is:
A) Fasciola hepatica


B) Schistosoma haematobium


C) Schistosoma. mansoni


D) Clonorchis sinensis

15. The scientific name of the sheep liver fluke is:
A) Fasciola hepatica


B) Schistosoma haematobium


C) Schistosoma mansoni


D) Clonorchis sinensis

16. Almost all cestodes belong to the subclass
A) Eucestoda.


B) Cestodaria.


C) Cestoidea.


D) Testudines.

17. In the beef tapeworm life cycle, as an egg develops it forms a six-hooked (hexacanth) larva called an oncosphere.
A) True
B) False
18. A fluid-filled bladder worm larva of a pork tapeworm is called a cysticercus, and it may form bladders in the brain of the mammalian host
A) True
B) False
19. The most distinctive feature of nemerteans is a long proboscis held in a sheath called a rhynchocoel.
A) True
B) False
20. Nemerteans are microscopic, aquatic animals with a complete digestive tract and an unusual proboscis
A) True
B) False
21. The monogenetic flukes (class Monogenea) are mostly external parasites of fishes
A) True
B) False
22. Turbellarians are monoecious with reproductive systems adapted for internal fertilization
A) True
B) False
23. Most turbellarians move entirely by cilia and are predators and scavengers
A) True
B) False



Answers:::::



1. b
2.d
3.a
4.a
5.c
6.a
7.c
8.d
9.d
10.d
11.a
12.a
13.a
14.d
15.a
16.a
17.a
18.a
19.a
20.b
21.a
22.a
23.a
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