Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) Pleading includes:
(a) The plaint
(b) The written statement
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(2) The doctrine of res judicata is the result of:
(a) The act of the plaintiff
(b) The act of the defendant
(c) The decision of the court

(3) Where the court is without jurisdiction, the plaint presented to it shall be:
(a) Forwarded to the court having jurisdiction
(b) Returned for presentation to the proper court
(c) Rejected

(4) An issue of fact is a fact:
(a) Asserted by both the parties
(b) Asserted by one party and denied by the other
(c) Specifically declared so under law

(5) An application for review may be made where:
(a) No appeal lies against the decision
(b) Appeal preferred against the decision has been rejected
(c) An appeal is allowed but no appeal has been preferred against the decision

(6) Where a plaintiff withdraws his suit without permission of the court, he is entitled to:
(a) Restore the same suit
(b) Institute a fresh suit on the same subject matter
(c) None of these

(7) An ex-parte decree is a judgment based on:
(a) Merit of the case
(b) Compromise of the parties
(c) The non-appearance of the defendant

(8) The communication of an acceptance as against the proposer is complete when:
(a) It comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(b) It is put into the means of transmission and is out of the control of the proposee
(c) The proposer notifies the propose of its receipt

(9) A voidable agreement is:
(a) Enforceable
(b) Unenforceable
(c) Enforceable at the option of one of the parties

(10) A contract made as a result of mistake of law is:
(a) Valid or enforceable
(b) Void
(c) Voidable

(11) The rights and duties of the parties to a contingent contract:
(a) Arise at the time of its formation
(b) Do not rise as the contract is void
(c) Arise upon the happening or unhappening of the future uncertain event collateral to the contract.

(12) An agreement made by a minor is:
(a) Void
(b) Voidable
(c) Enforceable if its performance is beneficial to the minor.

(13) Where a contract of guarantee is performed by the surety upon default of the principal debtor, the surety:
(a) Has a right to be indemnified by the principal debtor
(b) Does not have any such right to the indemnified
(c) Has right to be indemnified if provided under the contract

(14) Where under a contract of pledge, the pawner fails to perform his contract with in the stipulated time, he:
(a) Cannot redeem his pledged goods
(b) Can redeem his pledged goods at any subsequent time
(c) Can redeem his pledged goods before actual sale

(15) Malfeasance means:
(a) The commission of an unlawful act
(b) The improper performance of a lawful act
(c) The failure to perform a lawful act

(16) Mayhem is:
(a) The unlawful lying of hands on another person
(b) Bodily harm whereby a man is deprived of the use of any member of his body
(c) The actual striking of another person

(17) A master of a servant is:
(a) Not liable for any of his wrongful acts
(b) Is liable for all of his wrongful acts
(c) Liable for his wrongful act committed in the course of his employment

(18) A slander is a false and defamatory statement made:
(a) In writing
(b) Verbally
(c) In writing and verbally

(19) Damn Sine Injuria means:
(a) Infringement of a legal right without any actual loss resulting a legal action.
(b) Actual loss without infringement of any legal right resulting no legal action.
(c) Infringement of a legal right with actual loss resulting legal action

(20) Trespass ab anitio means entrance on the land of another:
(a) With authority of law
(b) Without authority of law
(c) With authority of law but subsequently commission of a wrong of misfeasance.

2007

2007
COMPULSORY QUESTION
10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) Public nuisance is a tort:
(a) Only when it prejudicially affects the public
(b) Only when it damages property belonging to the public
(c) Only when it causes direct and substantial injury to an individual
(d) None of these

(2) Confession made under the promise of secrecy is:
(a) Admissible
(b) Inadmissible
(c) Objectionable
(d) None of these

(3) An irrebuttable presumption:
(a) Is inconclusive proof of a fact
(b) Is conclusive proof of a fact
(c) Can be contradicted
(d) None of these

(4) Evidence may be given of:
(a) Inadmissible facts
(b) Irrelevant facts
(c) Facts in issue
(d) None of these

(5) Doctrine of estoppel:
(a) Applies to a minor
(b) Does not apply to a minor
(c) Applies to a minor for acts and omissions of others
(d) None of these

(6) Admission on point of law:
(a) Has force
(b) Has no force
(c) May help in proof
(d) None of these

(7) Dying declaration made under expectation of death is:
(a) Irrelevant
(b) Inadmissible
(c) Admissible
(d) None of these

(8) For a crime of strict liability:
(a) ‘mens reas’ is essential
(b) ‘actus reas’ is essential
(c) Both ‘mens rea’ and ‘actus reas’ are essential
(d) None of these

(9) Section 411 PPC relates to:
(a) Extortion
(b) Dacoity
(c) Dishonestly receiving stolen property
(d) None of these

(10) A master is liable for the torts of his servant:
(a) When the servant commits an ultra vires act
(b) When the servant commits an intra vires act
(c) When the servant commits a wrong within the course of employment
(d) None of these

(11) Punishment for imputation of unchastity of woman is:
(a) 2 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 10 years
(d) None of these

(12) A magistrate can order a person who files a false, frivolous and vexatious criminal case against somebody.
(a) To pay compensation to that somebody.
(b) To force him to deposit fine
(c) To ask him to apologize
(d) None of these

(13) Shujjah is divided into:
(a) 7 categories
(b) 8 categories
(c) 10 categories
(d) None of these

(14) Punishment for attempt to commit suicide is:
(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 8 years
(d) None of these

(15) In pre arrest bail
(a) Complaint is not essential
(b) FIR is essential
(c) FIR is not essential
(d) None of these

(16) A private complaint can be lodged:
(a) Before a Judge of High Court
(b) Before a Session judge
(c) Before a magistrate
(d) None of these

(17) Criminal Procedure is a Code of:
(a) Substantive law
(b) Adjective law
(c) Substantive as well as adjective law
(d) None of these

(18) Qanune Shahadat Order divides ‘fact’ into:
(a) 2 categories
(b) 3 categories
(c) 4 categories
(d) None of these

(19) Order for removal of obstruction and nuisance in urgent cases can be given by:
(a) A police officer
(b) A nazim
(c) A magistrate
(d) None of these

(20) Compensation:
(a) Is awarded in all crimes
(b) Is not awarded at all in some crimes
(c) Is awarded in some crimes
(d) None of these
__________________
The Me you have always known, the Me that's a stranger still.

2006

COMPULSORY QUESTION


10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) A statue is to be interpreted in accordance with:
(a) The rules of the business
(b) The intention of the legislature
(c) The body of statue
(d) None of these

(2) Where are the language of the enactment is not precise:
(a) Recourse can be had to external considerations
(b)Precise meanings will be probed.
(c) None of these

(3) Defendant is the person who:
(a) Files a suit
(b) Delays a suit
(c) Defends a suit
(d) None of these

(4) A suit means:
(a) Any criminal proceeding in a court of law
(b) A cause of action
(c) Any civil proceeding, being part of a plant
(d) None of these

(5) In civil suit, Oath is administered to:
(a) Lawyer
(b) Witnesses
(c) Plaintiff
(d) None of these

(6) Preliminary decrees are normally:
(a) Non determinative of issues
(b)Determinative of controversies of fundamental nature
(c) Neither

(7) The maxim “Ubi jus ibi remedium”:
(a) is a fundamental principle of law
(b) is obiter dicta
(c) is an obsolete principle of law
(d) None of these

(8) The general rule is that civil court have jurisdiction to try all civil suits:
(a) True
(b) False

(9) The court cannot treat a revision as an appeal or an appeal a revision:
(a) True
(b) False

(10) The term consideration does not necessarily mean payment of money/cash consideration only:
(a) True
(b) False

(11) In order to convert a proposal into a promise:
(a) The acceptance must be conditional
(b) The acceptance is not relevant
(c) The acceptance must be absolute

(12) The contract Act is:
(a) Act of 1908
(b) Act of 1912
(c) Act of 1872
(d) Act of 1868

(13) Duty is cast by the law upon a person whom an offer is made to reply to that offer:
(a) True
(b) False

(14) All agreements are contracts:
(a) If they are on stamp paper
(b) If they are made by the free consent of parties
(c) If they are registered
(d) None of these

(15) Law of Tort(s) is a:
(a) Part of law of Contract
(b) Dependant of Contract
(c) Civil wrong, independent of contract

(16) Libel is a defamatory statement published:
(a) In verbal form
(b) In permanent form
(c) None of these

(17) Legal duty of care, breach of duty and consequential damage/loss?
(a) are essential elements of negligence
(b) are useful elements in tort of negligence
(c) are not related to negligence

(18) Total restraint constitute false imprisonment:
(a) True
(b) False

(19) Injuria sine damno means:
(a) loss without violation of right
(b) Infringement of legal right with loss
(c) Infringement of legal right without loss

(20) Public Nuisance is exclusively a Tort:
(a) True
(b) False

2006COMPULSORY QUESTION


10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) Whenever violence is used by an unlawful assembly, every member of such assembly is guilty of the offence of rioting :
(a) True
(b) False

(2) Whoever drives any vehicle --- so rash or negligent as to endanger human life:
(a) he/she may be guilty of trespass to land
(b) he/she may be guilty of rash driving
(c) None of these

(3) The Pakistan Penal Code is as old as:
(a) 1890
(b) 1875
(c) 1860
(d) None of these

(4) For the offense of attempt to murder, punishment is:
(a) substantial fine
(b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years
(c) None of these

(5) In culpable homicide amounting to murder:
(a) Intention/knowledge is an essential ingredient
(b) intention/knowledge has no relevance at all
(c) None of these

(6) The offences of Rape and adultery are:
(a) Identical
(b) different
(c) None of these

(7) Extradition is a:
(a) crime
(b) civil wrong
(c) Law
(d) None of these

(8) Defamation mean:
(a) to honor and promote a person
(b) to hurt a person or to cause psychological injuries
(c) to harm the reputation of a person
(d) None of these

(9) The object of Code of Criminal Procedure is:
(a) to strengthen the economic foundations of the country
(b) is to ensure that the accused person gets a full and fail trial
(c) to elaborate the punishment
(d) None of these

(10) In matters of procedure the correct principle is:
(a) a particular procedure should be considered to be permitted if it is not prohibited.
(b) a particular procedure should be considered to be prohibited if it is not permitted.
(c) a particular procedure should be considered to be permitted even it is not prohibited

(11) The provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code do not apply to proceeding in the:
(a) Lower Courts
(b) High Courts
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Apply on all courts

(12) Trial is a judicial proceeding which ends in:
(a) Conviction/acquittal
(b) discharge
(c) both
(d) None of these

(13) Summary Trial is:
(a) Speedy trial
(b) No trial
(c) Neither
(d) None of these

(14) A criminal court is not competent to decide the civil rights of the parties, question like ownership and title:
(a) True
(b) False

(15) Presumption is always that the law will be applicable retrospectively more s when the law is of a penal nature:
(a) True
(b) False

(16) If a police officer investigates a non-cognizable case without an order from a Magistrate he commits an illegality:
(a) True
(b) False

(17) An insane/lunatic is incompetent to give evidence:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) A court may decide

(18) The Qanun-e-Shahadat order in its rigour is not intended to apply to proceedings before an arbitrator:
(a) True
(b) False

(19) The word “evidence” signifies of being evident i.e., plain, apparent or notorious:
(a) True
(b) False

(20) The Qanun-e-Shahadat order 1984 repealed:
(a) The Evidence Act 1908
(b) The Evidence Act 1948
(c) The Evidence Act 1872
(d) None of these

2005

COMPULSORY QUESTION

10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) Cause of action means:
(a) Relief claimed in a suit
(b) Subject matter of a suit
(c) Nature of suit
(d) None of these

(2) For breach of a contract, a suit may be filed:
(a) Where the contract was made
(b)Where the breach was made
(c) Where money was payable
(d) At any of the above places

(3) There is distinction between res judicata and res sub judice:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Same thing

(4) Plaintiff is the person who:
(a) Files a suit
(b) Defends a suit
(c) Delays a suit
(d) None of these

(5) Interrogators are administered to:
(a) Parties to a suit
(b) Witnesses
(c) Lawyers
(d) None of these

(6) Precept is issued by:
(a) Plaintiffs to defendants
(b) Oath commissioner to deponent
(c) A court to another court
(d) None of these

(7) Inherent power vests in:
(a) Court
(b) Parties
(c) Witnesses
(d) All of these

(8) Write jurisdiction is exercised by:
(a) Every Court in Pakistan
(b)The High Courts
(c) None of these

(9) Interlocutory order determines substantive rights in a suit:
(a) Correct
(b)Incorrect

(10) All agreements are contract:
(a) True
(b) False

(11) A constructive contract is created by the:
(a) Parties
(b) Legal heirs of the parties
(c) Witnesses to the contract
(d) None of these

(12) An agreement to do an impossible act is a:
(a) Void contract
(b) Voidable contract
(c) Void agreement
(d) All of these

(13) A contracts to pay B, Rs. 100,000/- if his house is burnt. It is a:
(a) Contingent contract
(b) Contract of guarantee
(c) Contract of indemnity
(d) None of these

(14) A person who employs another person to represent him in dealings with third persons is called:
(a) Master
(b) Creditor
(c) Principal
(d) None of these

(15) The Contract Act is of the year?
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1895
(d) None of these

(16) Law of torts is based on:
(a) Stature law
(b) Common law
(c) Law of contract
(d) All of these

(17) Malice is a necessary ingredient in Tort:
(a) True
(b)False
(c) Neither ‘a’ and ‘b’

(18) Misfeasance means:
(a) Commission of an unlawful act
(b) Doing of a lawful act in an illegal manner
(c) Failure to perform a legal obligation
(d) None of these

(19) Libel is a defamatory statement made:
(a) Verbally
(b) In writing
(c) Both

(20) Mere touching of another in anger is:
(a) Assault
(b) Battery
(c) Both

2005


COMPULSORY QUESTION

10. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) An affray is committed in a:
(a) Private place
(b) Public place
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(2) Sedition means exciting bad feelings against:
(a) Armed forces
(b)Government
(c) Political leaders
(d)All of these
(e) None of these

(3) In robbery there is:
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Either of the above
(d) None of these

(4) The Pakistan Panel Code is as old as:
(a) 1890
(b) 1865
(c) 1860
(d) None of these

(5) Extradition is a:
(a) Punishment
(b) Offence
(c) Law
(d) None of these

(6) Standards of medical and legal sanity are:
(a) Identical
(b)Different
(c) None of these

(7) A person is liable for his own wrongful acts:
(a) Absolutely correct
(b) Generally correct
(c) Absurd
(d) None of these

(8) Homicide is the killing of:
(a) A human being
(b) A living creature
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(9) In the Code of Criminal Procedure, offences are divided into:
(a) Two categories
(b)Five categories
(c) Seven categories
(d) None of these

(10) Appeal is:
(a) A natural right
(b) A right given by law
(c) A right given by the trial Court
(d) None of these

(11) Appellate and revisional jurisdictions are:
(a) Same
(b) Inter-linked
(c) Separate
(d) None of these

(12) Trial is a judicial proceeding which ends in:
(a) Conviction/acquittal
(b) Discharge
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(13) The term offence has been defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure:
(a) Yes
(b)No
(c) None of these

(14) A complaint is made to a:
(a) Magistrate
(b) Police officer
(c) District Nazim
(d) None of these

(15) Summary trial is:
(a) No trial
(b) Speedy trial
(c) Both

(16) The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 repealed:
(a) The Evidence Act, 1872
(b)The Ordinance of 1978
(c) None of these

(17) Who decides whether a person is competent to testify?
(a) Prosecutor
(b) Defence lawyer
(c) District attorney
(d) None of these

(18) A fact is said not to be proved when it is:
(a) No proved
(b) Disproved
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(19) A lunatic is incompetent to give evidence:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) A court may decide

(20) The examination of a witness after his cross-examination is called:
(a) Examination-in-chief
(b) Leading examination
(c) Concluding examination
(d) None of these
__________________

2004
COMPULSORY QUESTION

9. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) Can a party file a fresh suit on the subject matter in respect of which earlier suit was withdrawn:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes if the earlier suit was withdrawn with permission of the court.

(2) The provisions of law ousting jurisdiction of a court should be construed:
(a) Liberally
(b) Strictly
(c) According to facts of a case
(d) None of these

(3) Are the right to take out procession or the right of franchise of civil nature permissible/ accepted:
(a)Yes
(b) NO
(c) Yes, the right of franchise but not the right to take out procession
(d) Yes, not the right to take out procession but not the right of franchise

(4) A reside at Murree, B at Lahore and C at Karachi. They all get together at Bahawalpur. B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand and deliver it to A with leave of the court. A many sue B and C at:
(a) Murree only
(b) Lahore only
(c) Karachi only
(d) Murree, Lahore and Karachi
(e) Bahawalpur or Lahore or Karachi

(5) The code of civil procedure is:
(a) Act V of 1908
(b) Act IV of 1908
(c) Act V of 1912
(d) Act I of 1930

(6) Are the following properties liable to attachment and sale in execution of a decree.
(a) Fully salary
(b) Cooking vessels
(c) Yes
(d) No

(7) An injunction in respect of collection of Public revenues ceases to have effect on the expiry of:
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year

(8) The court may at any time before passing a decree amend the issue or frame additional issues:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect

(9) A premises to obtain for B an employment in the public service and B promises to pay ten thousand rupees to A. is the agreement void?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(10) A delivers a rough diamond to B, a jeweler, to be cut and polished which is accordingly done. Is B entitled to retain the Diamond?
(a) Yes till he is paid for the services he has rendered
(b) No he has to return the diamond and claim only remuneration.

(11) A promises to deliver goods at B’s Warehouse on the first July. On that day A brings the goods to B’s warehouse but after the usual hour for closing it, and they are not received. Has A performed the promise?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(12) Which of the statement is correct?
(a) A contract may be express only
(b) It may be express or implied or of mixed character

(13) Can a Minor enter into a lawful contract to which the other contracting party does not object?
(a) Yes
(b) No being void ab initio

(14) When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, the agreement is a contract”
(a) Void ab-initio
(b) Voidable at the option of the other party

(15) The remedies available to a person for nuisance are:
(a) Abatement, damages and injunction
(b) Only damages
(c) Only injunctions

(16) During a cricket match in an open ground a batsman hits a ball which injured the plaintiff standing on the Highway road. The plaintiff brought an action for damages. Is the cricket ball liable?
(a) Yes
(b) No, being a case of contributory negligence
(c) None of these

(17) Damnum Sine Inuria means:
(a) Damage without infringement of any legal right
(b) Damage and infringement of any legal right

(18) IS the employer liable for the negligent act of a contractor?
(a) Yes where there is an implied warranty by the employer
(b) No

(19) One of the distinguishing features between libel and Slander is that:
(a) Libel is written defamation while Slander is spoken defamation.
(b) Libel is spoken defamation and Slander is written defamation.

(20) Is it correct that a civil injury for which an action will not lie is not a tort?
(a) Yes
(b) No, infliction of all civil injury is tort.

2004
Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) Civil court can review its order under Section 114 C.P.C Has a Criminal Court the similar power:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, in some areas

(2) To prove terms of a contract contained in six letters should:
(a) All the letters be produced
(b) More important among them be produced

(3) Can a court allow to be produced any evidence made available through recorded cassette talk between accused and another person?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, If the court considers appropriate

(4) Can Caricature and an inscription on a metal plate be categorized as a document?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(5) An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused:
(a) Yes but not in a Hadd Case
(b) No

(6) Can witness to character may be cross examined and reexamined?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, may be cross examined but not reexamined.
(d) None of these

(7) Bailable offense means an offence shown as bailable.
(a) In the Second Schedule
(b) In the first schedule
(c) In the second schedule or any other law for the time being in force.

(8) Can a person be tried again for an offence for which he was acquitted by a court not competent to try the case?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(9) Can a criminal court order disposal of property of a pending case if it consists of fruit and vegetable?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(10) Is the offence of cheating (Sec 417):
(a) Non Bailable and Non Compoundable
(b) Non Bailable and Compoundable
(c) Bailable and Compoundable with permission of court

(11) Is the provincial legislature competent to amend, modify or repeal the code of criminal procedure?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(12) Is a previously convicted woman accused entitled to Bail under Section 497 Cr.P.C:
(a) Yes
(b) No

(13) A is wounded within jurisdiction of court X, and dies within jurisdiction of court Z. The offence may be tried by:
(a) Court X alone
(b) Court Z alone
(c) Court X or Z

(14) A and B mutually agree to fence with each other for amusement. A while playing fairly causes grievour hurt to B. Has A committed offence?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(15) A enters into the house of B at midnight and is challenged by B and during ensuing scuffle causes death of B. Which of the following offences have been committed by A?
(a) Section 452 and 302
(b) Section 460 and 302
(c) Section 448 and 302

(16) A, being executor to the will of the decreased person disobeys the law which directs him to divide the effects according to the will and appropriates them to his own use. Which of the following offences has A commited?
(a) Cheating
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Forgery

(17) Can a judge of High court and an Arbitrator appointed by a court categorized as “Public Servant”.
(a) Yes
(b) No

(18) A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause death to Z but in good faith and in Z’s benefit performs that operation on Z with his consent. Has he committed any offence?
(a) Yes
(b) No

(19) A, a public servant, induces Z, erroneously to believe that A’s influence with the government has obtained a title for Z and thus induces Z to give A money as a reward for this service. A has committed the offence of:
(a) Cheating
(b) Taking gratification other than legal remuneration

(20) Apprehending injury to him, A confined B in a house but escape is open through a door. Is A guilty of the offence of:
(a) Wrongful confinement
(b) Wrongful restraint
(c) None of these
__________________

2003

9. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.

(1) The Civil Procedure Code was enacted in:
(a) 1908
(b) 1809
(c) 1947
(d) None of these

(2) When a decision of a civil court is decree:
(a) No appeal lies therefrom
(b) An appeal invariably lies therefrom
(c) None of these

(3) Cause of action means:
(a) Subject matter of a suit
(b) Relief claimed in a suit
(c) Parties to a suit
(d) None of these

(4) Written statement is a statement of:
(a) Plaintiff
(b) Defendant
(c) Witness
(d) None of these

(5) (Missing)

(6) A sum of money payable under a decree may be paid:
(a) Into the court which passed the decree
(b) To the decree holder out of the court
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

(7)
(a) False
(b) True

(8) A commission is appointed under the civil procedure code by:
(a) The parties
(b) The provincial Government
(c) The court
(d) None of these

(9) A receiver is representative of:
(a) The court
(b) Plaintiff
(c) Defendant plaintiff
(d) None of these

(10) Issues in a civil suit are framed by:
(a) The parties
(b) Advocates of the parties
(c) Witness
(d) None of these

(11) In a contract of guarantee there are:
(a) Two parties
(b) Three parties
(c) Four parties
(d) None of these

(12) Remedy of injunction is:
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Mitigation of damages
(d) None of these

(13) Performance of a contract
(a) Cannot be avoided
(b) May be avoided in certain circumstances

(14) A proposal when accepted becomes:
(a) An agreement
(b) A contract
(c) None of these

(15) An agreement to do an impossible act is:
(a) Voidable
(b)Valid
(c) None of these

(16) The word tort is derived from:
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) English
(d) None of these

(17) Malice is necessary ingredient in tort:
(a) True
(b) False

(18) Wrongfully setting the law in motion is:
(a) Defamation
(b) Fraud
(c) Nuisance
(d) None of these

(19) Where a person having right to enforce a claim abstains from enforcing it for a long time, it is called:
(a) Release
(b) Acquiescence
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these

(20) Trespass to person without lawful justification involves:
(a) Assault
(b) Battery
(c) False imprisonment
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

2003

Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.
(1) An arbitrator is also a Court:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect

(2) An oral statement made by a person which suggest any inference as to any fact in issue under certain circumstances is:
(a) Admission
(b) Confession
(c) None of these

(3) Oral evidence is:
(a) Best evidence
(b) No evidence
(c) Bad evidence
(d) None of these

(4) Generally documents are to be proved by:
(a) Primary evidence
(b) Secondary evidence
(c) None of these

(5) Irrelevant questions may be asked by the:
(a) Prosecution
(b) Defence
(c) Presiding judge
(d) None of these

(6) Ambiguities in documents are:
(a) Latent
(b) Patent
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these

(7) When a fact is neither proved nor disapproved, it is said to be:
(a) Not proved
(b) Proved
(c) None of these

(8) A cognizable offence is usually:
(a) No offence
(b) Serious offence
(c) Minor offence
(d) None of these

(9) There is no difference between a complaint and FIR:
(a) Correct
(b)Incorrect
(c) None of these

(10) An investigation is made by:
(a) A police officer
(b) A magistrate
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(11) After a charge has been framed against an accused, he may be:
(a) Discharged
(b) Acquitted
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

(12) A person who has committed a serious offence may be arrested by:
(a) A private person
(b) Police officer
(c) Magistrate
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these

(13) Retracted confession is a confession made before:
(a) A Police officer
(b) A magistrate
(c) A private person
(d) None of these

(14) Where there is a conviction, there is an appeal.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) None of these

(15) A signs his own name to a bill of exchange, intending that it may be believed that the bill was drawn by another person of the same name. A has committed:
(a) Forgery
(b) Fraud
(c) Mischief
(d) None of these

(16) Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful again to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing:
(a) Fraudulently
(b) Gaining or losing wrongfully
(c) Dishonestly
(d) None of these

(17) Preparation to commit an offence is:
(a) Not punishable
(b) Punishable in certain cases
(c) None of these

(18) Bigamy means:
(a) Adultery
(b) Taking away with criminal intention a married woman
(c) Concealment of a marriage
(d) None of these

(19) Jurh is a hurt, its kinds are:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these

(20) Prosecution is bound to prove motive for the crime:
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) None of these