we should solve all previous papers msqs by sharing ,discussing and also should add material concerning them.........

PART-I(MCQS)(COMPULSORY)

Q.1(i) Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Circle on the OMR Answer Sheet.
(ii) Answers given anywhere, other than OMR Answer Sheet, shall not be considered.


1. Presumption upon the production of any certified copy of a foreign judgment mean:

(a) Judgment was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction.
(b) Foreign judgment needs to be proved in evidence.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

2. Every suit shall be instituted in the court of:

(a) Civil Judge
(b) Lowest grade competent to try
(c) Court of higher grade
(d) None of these

3. A decree may be executed by court.

(a) Which passed it
(b) Which sent it for execution
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

4. The court on the application of the decree holder, order execution of the decree by:

(a) Delivery of any property specifically decreed
(b) Attachment and sale or by sale without attachment of any property
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

5. Subject to conditions and limitation as prescribed any court may state a case and sent to the High Court for its opinion called:

(a) Review
(b) Revision
(c) Reference
(d) None of these

6. Nothing in CPC deemed to limit or affect the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary :

(a) For the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of court.
(b) To maintain the power and hierarchy of the court
(c) To secure the plaintiffs right
(d) None of these

7. The plaint shall be rejected:

(a) Where it does disclose a cause of action
(b) Where the relief claimed is undervalued and plaintiff, failed to correct the valuation within prescribed time fixed by court.
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(d)None of these

8. Where a judge has vacated office after pronouncing judgment but without signing of decree, a decree drawn up in accordance with such judgment may be signed by:

(a)Sending the same to the same judge who pronounced judgment
(b) His successor or if the court ceased to exit by, the judge of any court to which such court was subordinate.
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

9. Every Promise and every set of promises , forming the consideration of each other is:

(a) Contract
(b) Agreement
(c) Offer
(d) None of these

10. Acceptance of the proposal is said to be when/or:

(a) Acceptance of any consideration for a reciprocal promise which may be offered with a proposal.
(b) Performance of the conditions of a proposal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

11. In a contract of reciprocal promises no promise need to perform his promise unless:

(a) The promise is ready and willing to perform his promise.
(b) The promisor has to show his good intention and perform his promise.
(c) The promisee and promisor has to sign a surety bond in order to fulfill their promises.
(d) None of these

12. The original contract between the parties need to be performed when the parties to contract :

(a) Agree to substitute a new contact
(b) Agree to rescind
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

13. When anything delivered to a person by mistake, he must:

(a) Sell it and pat the proceed to sender
(b) Return it to the sender
(c) Wait for the sender to contact him, if not, can keep it
(d)None of these

14. When a contract has been broken, the part who suffers by such breach is entitled for:

(a) Damages
(b) Compensation for loss or damage
(c) Renewed contract along with damages
(d) None of these

15. A sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee is considered ,when for the benefit of principal debtor.

(a) Anything is done
(b) Any promise is made
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

16. A tort is a civil wrong, for which the remedy is an action for:

(a) Compensation
(b) Unliquidated damage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

17. Maxim Ubi Jus Ibi remedium mean:

(a) Wrong with remedy
(b) Action of wrong with remedy
(c) There is no wrong without a remedy
(d) None of these


18. Corporation is an artificial Juristic person, against it certain torts cannot be committed, such as:

(a) Assault or false imprisonment
(b) Capacity to sue and be sued
(c) Negligence and misrepresentaion
(d) None of these

19. Release of one joint tort feasor:

(a) May not have actionable affect on others
(b) Release all others
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

20. Extinction of liability in tort may take place on:
(a) Waiver, Accord and Satisfaction, Death
(b) Release ,Judgment and Statutes of the Limitation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these


Kindly solve it

PART-I ((MCQs) (COMPULSORY) css 2013

Q.1. (i) Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate Circle on the OMR Answer Sheet. (20x1=20)
(ii) Answers given anywhere, other than OMR Answer Sheet, shall not be considered.

1. Whosoever attempts to commit Qatl-i-Amad in the name of or the pretext of honour shall be punished with imprisonment of not less than:
(a) 10 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) None of these

2. “A” offers a bribe to “B”, a public servant, as a reward for showing “A” some favour in the exercise of B’s official function. “B” accepts the bribe. “A” has abetted the offence defined in Section:
(a) 503 P.P.C
(b) 161 P.P.C
(c) 511 P.P.C
(d) None of these

3. “A” makes an attempt to pick the pocket of “Z” by thrusting his hand into Z’s pocket. “A” fails in the attempt in consequence of Z’s having nothing in his pocket. “A” is guilty of offence under Section:
(a) 379 P.P.C
(b) 411 P.P.C
(c) 511 P.P.C
(d) None of these

4. “A” unlawfully digs a pit in the thoroughfare, but, without any intension to cause death or harm of any person. “B” while passing falls in it and is killed. “A” has committed:
(a) Qatl-i-Khata
(b) Qatl-Bis-Sabab
(c) Qatl-Shibh-i-Amad
(d) None of these

5. “A” aims at a deer but misses the target and kills “Z”. “A” is guilty of:
(a) Qatl-i-Amad
(b) Qatl-i-Khata
(c) Qatl-Shibh-i-Amad
(d) None of these

6. Section 411 P.P.C relates to:
(a) Extortion
(b) Dacoity
(c) Dishonestly receiving stolen property
(d) None of these

7. “A” threat to injure the reputation of any deceased person in whom the person threatened is interested is punishable under Section:
(a) 506 P.P.C
(b) 500 P.P.C
(c) 508 P.P.C
(d) None of these

8. In culpable homicide amounting to murder:
(a) Intention/knowledge is an essential ingredient
(b) Intention/knowledge has no relevance at all
(c) Motive not set up need not to be proved
(d) None of these

9. Trial is a judicial proceedings which ends in:
(a) Conviction/acquittal
(b) Discharge
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

10. Sections 241 Cr.P.C to 249 Cr.P.C are applicable to trials before:
(a) High Court
(b) Session Court
(c) Magistrate
(d) None of these

11. A woman being accused of any offence not punishable with death has been detained for such offence is entitled to bail after expiry of the period of:
(a) Five months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) None of these

12. The accuse shall not render himself liable to punishment by refusing to answer any question under Section 342 Cr.P.C or by giving false answer to them.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) None of these

13. Criminal Procedure is code of:
(a) Substantive law
(b) Adjective law
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

14. In every case where accused is convicted, the copy of judgement shall be given to him:
(a) Immediately
(b) After 7 days
(c) On confirmation by High Court
(d) None of these

15. Proof ‘beyond any reasonable shadow of doubt’ is a sine qua non in:
(a) Civil matters
(b) Criminal cases
(c) Service matters
(d) None of these

16. A judgement in rem is valid against:
(a) Entire world
(b) In personam
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

17. Confession made under the promise of secrecy is:
(a) Admissible
(b) Inadmissible
(c) Objectionable
(d) None of these

18. An irrebuttable presumption is:
(a) Inconclusive proof of a fact
(b) Conclusive proof of a fact
(c) Can be contradicted
(d) None of these

19. Statement of the accused under Section 342 Cr.P.C shall be recorded on:
(a) Oath
(b) Without oath
(c) Subject to discretion of court
(d) None of these

20. Doctrine of estoppel:
(a) Applies to a minor
(b) Does not apply to a minor
(c) Applies to a minor for acts and omission of others
(d) None of these


(CSS2013 mcqs part)

PART – I (MCQ) css 2010
(COMPULSORY)

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) A suit for the recovery of property may be instituted in the court:
(a) Where the defendant resides
(b) Where the plaintiff resides
(c) Where the property situates
(d) Where the cause of action arises
(ii) A decree may be executed by a court:

(a) in whose jurisdiction the defendant resides
(b) having criminal jurisdiction
(c) in whose jurisdiction the subject matter situates
(d) Which passed the decree

(iii) In the execution of a decree the court may attach and sell:
(a) all saleable, moveable or immoveable property
(b) necessary wearing apparel
(c) property surrendered by the judgment debtor
(d) Any of these

(iv) A revisional jurisdiction of a High Court may be invoked:
(a) where the judgment of the subordinate court is based on error
(b) if the subordinate court has acted without jurisdiction
(c) on merits of the case
(d) for permission to file, an appeal

(v) Amendments of pleadings may be allowed by the court:
(a) before framing the issues
(b) before close of the evidence
(c) at any stage of the proceedings
(d) None of these

(vi) A minor can sue:
(a) Himself
(b) Through next friend
(c) Upon attaining the age of majority
(d) Any of these

(vii) A tender for the sale or purchase of goods is:
(a) proposal
(b) an invitation to make an offer
(c) acceptance
(d) None of these

(viii) The communication of an acceptance is complete:
(a) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(b) when the proposee is informed by the proposer of its receipt
(c) when its transmission is out of the control of the proposee
(d) Any of these

(ix) An agreement made by a minor is:
(a) enforceable
(b) unenforceable
(c) enforceable upon minor’s attainment of age of majority
(d) enforceable if beneficial to minor

(x) An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is:
(a) void
(b) voidable
(c) unlawful
(d) None of these

(xi) An agreement may be performed:
(a) by the parties
(b) by the legal representatives of the parties
(c) by the assignor and the assignee of the contract
(d) All of these

(xii) Novation of contract means:
(a) rescission
(b) breach
(c) modification
(d) None of these

(xiii) A promise to be liable for a debt conditionally on the principal debtor making default is a contract of:
(a) indemnity
(b) guarantee
(c) pledge
(d) None of these

(xiv) The term pawn is used in the contract of:
(a) indemnity
(b) guarantee
(c) agency
(d) None of these

(xv) A tort is an infringement of:
(a) a private civil right
(b) a public right
(c) both private and public rights
(d) None of these

(xvi) In order to establish tort, the victim must show the presence of:
(a) Legal damage
(b) actual damage
(c) pecuniary damage
(d) Any of these

(xvii) A battery is:
(a) an attempt to do a corporeal hurt to another
(b) a bodily harm whereby a man is deprived of the use of any member of his body or sense
(c) the actual striking of another person
(d) None of these

(xviii) In order to constitute false imprisonment the confinement of the person must be:
(a) actual i.e. physical
(b) constructive i.e. mere show of authority
(c) restraining the movement of the person against his will
(d) Any of these

(xix) Dismissal of a servant by the master is justifiable on:
(a) grave misconduct
(b) a proof of habitual negligence of serious character
(c) misconduct on one occasion only if sufficiently gross
(d) Any of these

(xx) A person is guilty of public nuisance if he does acts leading to:
(a) wrongful disturbances of easement or servitude
(b) wrongful escape of deleterious substances into another’s property
(c) an illegal omission causing any common injury or annoyance to the people in general
(d) None of these

PART – I (MCQ)css 2010
(COMPULSORY)

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) A police officer may arrest a person without warrant if the offence is:
(a) cognizable
(b) non-cognizable
(c) bailable
(d) None of these

(ii) Any offence defined under the Pakistan Penal Code may be tried by:
(a) The High Court
(b) The Court of session
(c) Magisterate of 1st Class
(d) Any of these

(iii) An order u/s 144 of Criminal Procedure Code to prevent nuisance or apprehended danger in urgent cases may be made by:
(a) the High Court
(b) Court of session
(c) District Magistrate
(d) None of these

(iv) A statement by a witness to a police officer u/s 161 of the Criminal Procedure Code shall be made:
(a) On Oath
(b) Without Oath
(c) as directed by the police officer
(d) None of these

(v) Where a magistrate of the second or third class is of the opinion that the accused deserves more severe punishment than he is empowered to inflict, he may forward the accused to:
(a) the court of session
(b) district magistrate
(c) magistrate of 1st class
(d) may try himself

(vi) An appeal against the conviction passed by a magistrate of the second or third class may be made to the:
(a) magistrate of the 1st class
(b) district magistrate
(c) court of session
(d) high court

(vii) The right of private defence of property extends to death in cases of:
(a) robbery
(b) house breaking by night
(c) mischief by fire committed on human dwelling place
(d) Any of these

(viii) A child is not criminally liable if he is:
(a) under 18 years of age
(b) under 7 years of age
(c) above 7 and under 12 years of age but has attained sufficient maturity
(d) None of these

(ix) An abettor is a person who:
(a) actively participates in the commission of an offence
(b) does not have any relation with the commission of the offence
(c) instigates another person to commit an offence
(d) None of these

(x) Diyat can be awarded in case of:
(a) Qatl Shibh
(b) Qatl Khata
(c) Qatl bis Sabah
(d) Any of these

(xi) The act of obstructing another person so as to prevent him from moving lawfully in a direction is said to be:
(a) wrongful detention
(b) wrongful confinement
(c) wrongful restraint
(d) None of these

(xii) Theft becomes robbery if during the commission of the offence the offender causes or attempts to cause:
(a) death or fear of instant death
(b) hurt or fear of instant hurt
(c) wrongful restraint or fear of wrongful restraint
(d) Any of these

(xiii) The Quanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 does not apply to proceedings before:
(a) a court martial
(b) a tribunal
(c) an arbitrator
(d) None of these

(xiv) Privileged communication means that the witness may be:
(a) compelled to give answers
(b) excused from giving answers
(c) exempted from attending the court
(d) None of these

(xv) An accomplice is:
(a) an incompetent witness
(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness of permitted by the court of law
(d) None of these

(xvi) A fact in issue is a fact:
(a) asserted by one and denied by the other party
(b) relevant to the proceedings
(c) necessary to explain or introduce a relevant fact
(d) None of these

(xvii) Hearsay evidence is:
(a) no evidence
(b) inadmissible
(c) admissible where provided by law
(d) None of these

(xviii) The contents of a document may be proved by:
(a) oral evidence
(b) secondary evidence
(c) primary evidence
(d) None of these

(xix) A fact to which a judicial notice has been taken by the court:
(a) must be proved by evidence
(b) need not be proved
(c) may be proved with the permission of the court
(d) None of these

(xx) A leading question may be asked in:
(a) examination in chief
(b) cross-examination
(c) re-examination
(d) None of these

PART – I (MCQ)
COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Non-Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(ii) A Justice of Peace appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure (V of 1898) for the purpose of making an arrest has the power of:
(a) a Magistrate
(b) a Judicial Magistrate
(c) a Police Officer
(d) None of these

(iii) A Magistrate First Class can tray:
(a) all offences punishable with death
(b) all offences not punishable with death
(c) all offences punishable with imprisonment of 6 montths
(d) None of these

(iv) A police officer is bound to bring a person arrested by him before the court:
(a) within 24 hours
(b) within 36 hours
(c) as soon as possible
(d) None of these

(v) A person convicted on a trial held by an Additional Sessions Judge may appeal to:
(a) the Sessions Judge
(b) the High Court
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) None of these

(vi) After a charge has been framed against an accused person, he may be:
(a) discharged
(b) acquitted
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(viii) A was driving at a normal speed on a highway. Suddenly a child ran before his car to cross the road. A could not stopped and, consequently, the boy was killed. He should be prosecuted for:
(a) Murder
(b) Negligence
(c) Culpable Homicide
(d) None of these

(ix) A saw an armed person entering his house in the mid-night who abruptly opened fire on A. A also opened fire on him and killed him. He has committed:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable Homicide
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these

(x) An anonymous person informed A, a very wealthy smuggler of wheat, on telephone that his minor son was in his custody and if A does not donate Rs.500,000/- to the local “sateemkhana” he would break his son’s legs. The caller committed which of the following offence:
(a) no offence
(b) Kidnap
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these

(xi) When five or more persons, by fighting in a football ground, disturb the public peace, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Unlawful Assembly
(d) None of these

(xii) When five or more persons armed with deadly weapons, enter some ones house, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Criminal Trespass
(d) None of these

(xiii) A private person may arrest another person, who in his view has committed a:
(a) non-bailable offence
(b) cognizable offence
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

(xiv) A warrant of arrest must be issued by:
(a) an A.S.P. of Police
(b) the Home Secretary
(c) the presiding judge of the court issuing the warrant
(d) None of these

(xv) A lunatic who is not prevented by his lunacy from understanding the questions put to him is:
(a) a competent witness
(b) is not a competent witness
(c) is not a competent witness if has not attained the age of majority
(d) None of these

(xvi) A person who has been convicted for perjury is:
(a) is not a competent if has not attained the age of majority
(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness provided the court is satisfied that he had repented and mended his ways
(d) None of these

(xvii) In which of the following an accomplice is not a competent witness:
(a) offences punishable with death
(b) offences punishable with hadd
(c) offences punishable with confiscation of property
(d) None of these

(xviii) In criminal cases previous good character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant if proved with oath
(d) None of these

(xix) In criminal cases previous bad character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant only when accused provides evidence of his good character
(d) None of these

(xx) The contents of a document may be proved?
(a) only by primary evidence
(b) by primary as well as secondary evidence
(c) only by secondary evidence
(d) None of these

css 2009

PART – I (MCQ)
COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Non-Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(ii) A Justice of Peace appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure (V of 1898) for the purpose of making an arrest has the power of:
(a) a Magistrate
(b) a Judicial Magistrate
(c) a Police Officer
(d) None of these

(iii) A Magistrate First Class can tray:
(a) all offences punishable with death
(b) all offences not punishable with death
(c) all offences punishable with imprisonment of 6 montths
(d) None of these

(iv) A police officer is bound to bring a person arrested by him before the court:
(a) within 24 hours
(b) within 36 hours
(c) as soon as possible
(d) None of these

(v) A person convicted on a trial held by an Additional Sessions Judge may appeal to:
(a) the Sessions Judge
(b) the High Court
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) None of these

(vi) After a charge has been framed against an accused person, he may be:
(a) discharged
(b) acquitted
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(viii) A was driving at a normal speed on a highway. Suddenly a child ran before his car to cross the road. A could not stopped and, consequently, the boy was killed. He should be prosecuted for:
(a) Murder
(b) Negligence
(c) Culpable Homicide
(d) None of these

(ix) A saw an armed person entering his house in the mid-night who abruptly opened fire on A. A also opened fire on him and killed him. He has committed:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable Homicide
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these

(x) An anonymous person informed A, a very wealthy smuggler of wheat, on telephone that his minor son was in his custody and if A does not donate Rs.500,000/- to the local “sateemkhana” he would break his son’s legs. The caller committed which of the following offence:
(a) no offence
(b) Kidnap
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these

(xi) When five or more persons, by fighting in a football ground, disturb the public peace, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Unlawful Assembly
(d) None of these

(xii) When five or more persons armed with deadly weapons, enter some ones house, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Criminal Trespass
(d) None of these

(xiii) A private person may arrest another person, who in his view has committed a:
(a) non-bailable offence
(b) cognizable offence
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

(xiv) A warrant of arrest must be issued by:
(a) an A.S.P. of Police
(b) the Home Secretary
(c) the presiding judge of the court issuing the warrant
(d) None of these

(xv) A lunatic who is not prevented by his lunacy from understanding the questions put to him is:
(a) a competent witness
(b) is not a competent witness
(c) is not a competent witness if has not attained the age of majority
(d) None of these

(xvi) A person who has been convicted for perjury is:
(a) is not a competent if has not attained the age of majority
(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness provided the court is satisfied that he had repented and mended his ways
(d) None of these

(xvii) In which of the following an accomplice is not a competent witness:
(a) offences punishable with death
(b) offences punishable with hadd
(c) offences punishable with confiscation of property
(d) None of these

(xviii) In criminal cases previous good character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant if proved with oath
(d) None of these

(xix) In criminal cases previous bad character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant only when accused provides evidence of his good character
(d) None of these

(xx) The contents of a document may be proved?
(a) only by primary evidence
(b) by primary as well as secondary evidence
(c) only by secondary evidence
(d) None of these

2009

PART – I (MCQ)
COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) “Mesne Profits” of property means the profits:
(a) received by a mortgagee from the mortgaged property
(b) received by the person in wrongful possession from the property wrongfully possessed by him
(c) received by a bailee during the period the property was in his possession under the contract of bailment
(d) None of these

(ii) A suit for the recovery of an immovable property should be filed in the court within local limits of whose jurisdiction the:
(a) plaintiff resides
(b) cause of action has arisen
(c) defendant resides
(d) None of these

(iii) A filed a suit against B for the recovery of price of the cow he sold to B. In reaction to such suit B filed a suit against A for the recovery of the price of the cow he paid to A. The B’s suit can be termed as:
(a) Interpleader suit
(b) Counter Claim
(c) Set-off
(d) None of these

(iv) A minor can sue through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these

(v) Which of the following modes of execution of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is not lawful:
(a) attachment of immovable property
(b) attachment movable property
(c) forcibly taking the wife to her husband’s house
(d) None of these

(vi) A suit for compensation for wrongs to movable property should be filed in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
(a) the wrong was done
(b) the defendant resides
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A minor can be sued through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these

(viii) Jamal, a 17 years old millionaire and thus a minor under the law, agrees to buy Bilal’s house for “a reasonable price.” They reduce the agreement to writing and both sign. Bilal and Jamal have:
(a) a valid contract
(b) a voidable contract
(c) no contract
(d) None of these

(ix) Salim, a 14 years old, offers to cut Shahid’s grass for Rs.400/-. Shahid replies “If you include some hedge trimming I accept.” Salim walks away. Shahid then says, “never mind, I accept for Rs.400/-.” Salim keeps walking. There is:
(a) an oral contract at Rs. 400/-
(b) a voidable contract
(c) an offer from Shahid
(d) None of these

(x) Salman states to Jamal who is only 16 years old “I would not sell my car for less than Rs.5,000/-.” Jamal says, “I accept.” Under the Contract Act:
(a) there is an offer and acceptance and thus a valid contract
(b) the contract is voidable on the option of Jamal
(c) there is no contract
(d) None of these

(xi) Noman offers to sell his car to Sardar for Rs.200,000/-. Sardar says “Is that negotiable?” Noman says “No.” Sardar then says, “Well, I’ll take it for Rs. 200,000/-.” What has happened?
(a) Sardar has accepted Noman’s offer
(b) Sardar has made a new offer
(c) Sardar has rejected Noman’s offer under the mirror image rule
(d) None of these

(xii) A and B are negotiating over the price of a used car. A tells B that he can purchased the car for Rs.400,000/-. B tells A that “I agree if you replace the tyres.” Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) B’s acceptance is qualified and incomplete
(b) B has made a counter offer
(c) B has made A conditional acceptance
(d) None of these

(xiii) When an offer can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom the offer is made, is characteristic of:
(a) bilateral contracts
(b) quasi contracts
(c) implied contracts
(d) None of these

(xiv) Kala Khan offers to sell Baboo Bashir his motorcycle at some time in the future. Baboo Bashir accepts. Is there a valid contract?
(a) probably not, the terms are not definite
(b) Probably so
(c) definitely not because the acceptance was invalid
(d) None of these

(xv) In a tort which is actionable per se the plaintiff has to prove:
(a) the commission of the tortous act as well as resulting damage
(b) the commission of the tortous act only
(c) the commission of the tortous act resulting damage and ill-well on the part of the defendant
(d) None of these

(xvi) Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) damage without infringement of a legal right
(b) Infringement of a legal right only
(c) Infringement of a legal right without any damage
(d) None of these

(xvii) Publication of a verbal defamatory statement necessitates that it should have been:
(a) repeated in a gathering of 10%
(b) published in a national news paper
(c) known to a third person
(d) None of these

(xviii) Under the rule of Vicarious Liability:
(a) a company is liable for the wrongful acts of its directors
(b) only a master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(c) both A & B
(d) None of these

(xix) Which of the following is not a remedy in an action for tort?
(a) Injunction
(b) fine
(c) damage
(d) None of these

(xx) A right in personum is the right which is?
(a) available against the world at large
(b) not available against a particular individual
(c) not the creation of a contract
(d) None of these
2009

2008
PART –I (MCQ)
Compulsory
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

i. The concept of Res-judicata is available in:
(a) section 9
(b) section 11
(c) section12
(d) none of these

ii. In cases wherein the subject-matter is more than 30 lacs appeal against appellate decree lies before:
(a) District court
(b) High court
(c) Supreme court
(d) Any of these

iii- review can be filed before:
(a)same court of original jurisdiction
(b) district court
(c) High court
(d) Supreme court

iv- defendant is the person who:
(a) files a suit
(b) delays a suit
(c) defends a suit
(d) none of these

v- Appeal against decree is available on the ground of:
(a) Questions of fact
(b) Questions of law
(c) Mixed questions of law and fact
(d) All of these

vi- A suit means:
(a) Any criminal proceeding in a court of law
(b) A cause of action
(c) Any civil proceeding, being part of a plaint
(d) None of these

vii- Revisional jurisdiction is available to:
(a) District court
(b) High court in its original jurisdiction
(c) Supreme court
(d) None of these

viii- Agency contract is created by:
(a) express agreement
(b) implied agreement
(c) ratification
(d) all of these

ix- Pledge is a:
(a) contract of bailment
(b) contract of indemnity
(c) contract of agency
(d) none of these

x- these are the contracts wherein there is ni need of consideration :
(a) agreement to compensate past voluntary services
(b) agreement to time barred debt
(c) none of these
(d) in both (a) & (b)

xi- all the agreements are contracts:
(a) if they are on stamp paper
(b) if they are made by the free consent of the parties
(c) if they are registered
(d) none of these

xii- under the effect of fraud the contract would be:
(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) unenforceable
(d) none of these

xiii- Tort(word) is derived from the:
(a) latin language
(b) greek language
(c) French language
(d) English language

xiv- how many constitutes of torts are stated by legal thinkers:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) None of these

xv- Rylands vs. Fletcher case was about:
(a) negligence
(b) nuisance
(c) strict liability
(d) none of these

xvi- libel and slander are kinds of:
(a) damnum sine injuria
(b) defamation
(c) discharge of torts
(d) none of these

xvii- assault and battery are kinds of :
(a) trespass to person
(b) malicious prosecution
(c) force majeure
(d) none of these

xviii- any thing done to hurt or annoyance of the lands and not amounting to trespass is termed as:
(a) negligence
(b) Nuisance
(c) Malicious prosecution
(d) All of these

xix- incorporeal rights include:
(a) easements
(b) trade marks
(c) patent and copy right
(d) all of these

xx- when license and authority is given to hurt , doing the same it becomes:
(a) trespass ab intio
(b) injuria sine damnum
(c) Volenti non fit injuria
(d) None of these

2008
PART –I (MCQ)
Compulsory
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) judicial confession can be recorded by the following procedure available in:
(a)section 164 cr.pc
(b)section 364 cr.pc
(c ) both sections
(d) none of these

(ii) the procedure of identification parade is available in:
(a)Art. 22 of Q.S.O.
(b)Art. 24 of Q.S.O.
(c) Art. 27 of Q.S.O.
(d) Any of these

(iii) fact of judicial notice requires its proof by:
(a) oral evidence
(b) documentary evidence
(c) by both (a) & (b)
(d) Need not to prove

(iv) expert is a person who is specially skilled in the subject of:
(a) foreign law
(b) Art
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

(v) hearsay evidence is generally:
(a) admissible evidence
(b) inadmissible evidence
(c) oral evidence
(d) none of these

(vi) Accomplice is a type of witness:
(a) who is partner in crime
(b) who don’t associate in crime
(c) who may be a planted person in a criminal gang
(d) none of these

(vii) section __________ deals with arrest without warrant:
(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 59

(viii) Arrest without warrant can be made by a Police officer:
(a) of any rank
(b) officer in charge of a police station
(c) not below the rank of officer
(d) any of these

(ix) unlawful assembly is an assembly consisting at least _________ persons:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) None of these

(x) after recording confession, the accused is:
(a) sent back to the police custody
(b) kept in judicial lock up
(c) set free
(d) none of these

(xi) confirmation of death sentence by the High court must be signed by:
(a) one judge
(b) two judge
(c) three judges
(d) any of these

(xii) bailable offences are offences punishable with:
(a) imprisonment for life
(b) imprisonment less than 10 years
(c) Death
(d) All of these

(xiii) FIR of a cognizable offences can be lodged by :
(a) the aggrieved person
(b) the relative of the aggrieved
(c) Any person having knowledge of the offence
(d) All of these

(xiv) statement recorded under section 342 shall be administered on Oath :
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Discretion of court to ask for Oath or not

(xv) The form of FIR contains:
(a) 4 columns
(b) 5 columns
(c) 6 columns
(d) 7 columns
(xvi) Pakistan Penal Code was passed in:
(a) 7th April 1860
(b) 6th October 1860
(c) 7th October 1860
(d) None of these

(xvii) right of private defence of body includes the defence of:
(a) his own body
(b) Any other person
(c) His own body and of his close relative
(d) His body and the body of any other person

(xviii) kidnapping includes:
(a) kidnapping from Pakistan
(b) kidnapping from lawful guardianship
(c) kidnapping from Pakistan and from lawful guardianship
(d) None of these

(xix) the word “injury” includes or denotes any harm whether illegally caused to person:
(a) in body
(b) reputation or property
(c) mind
(d) All of these

(xx) whoever commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment of the description for a term which may extend to:
(a) 3 years
(b) 19 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 17 years