I have got 3 replies so for.
I am feeling it worth sharing that you didn't get the topic/question which I asked for. You totally misunderstood the topic/question and this is something more important to cover while you are preparing yourself for competitive examination.
OK, here goes my part.
I do not agree with the statement that feudalism exists in Pakistan, if we map it's dictionary meanings with current situation. According to 16th century British and French Lawyers, there must be 3 conditions which are necessary for the definition of Feudalism..
1) the feudal lord (land owner)
2) the Vassals
3) the fiefs
From this perspective, the term cannot be used in Pakistan. According to a research, the larger landholdings have shrunk, most land owners do not maintain private armies and neither do they have vassals who would fight wars for them.
Also, given the rise of capitalism in the country, feudalism is no longer a problem or a prevalent institution ion Pakistan.
So to summarize, one cannot say that feudalism exists in Pakistan.
(Note: I prepared this because I was suppose to discuss in negation to the topic sentence "Feudalism exists in Pakistan". Although, in my personal opinion, it exists with some changed context like feudal lords are now large industrialists and capitalists.) However, I am ready to defend my point of view
