Quote:
Originally Posted by usmanamjad877
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Check out 8th peragraph pf this link which i pasted above. According to it in year 52-53 this sales tax was permanently made federal matter. Now which one is correct
Can anybody help??
@Xaara: Wikipedia is not a trust able site. So please try to avoid it in using for notes etc.
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Dear its not about being reliable its about the timing especially in current affairs.so, data may change likewise.
I personally prefer wikipedia as it is systematic and has proper introduction and covers every aspect of topic. and BTW not all notes are from wikipedia. I have dig in a lot of sources. data wghaira har jaga available hota hai.
coming to ur problem,COMPLETELY and PERMANENTLY main bohot farq hai. agar ap NFC theek se smjhain ge to u will get the point,is main aisi conflict wali koi baat nahi..53 main it was to stay with centre, but not'completely'.In 74, it was COMPLETELY federalized