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Old Wednesday, October 21, 2015
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Machiavelli View Post
Your correction implies that he WAS ill and now is recuperating. The actual sentence signifies that he has been ill ( and STILL IS ) since the previous 3 months.
Hey,
When we use am this means that we are talking in the present tense. In this sentence , am cannot be used because of the 'for 3 months' part. This sentence when translated in urdu means 'mai pichlay 3 mahenun say bemar hun,' we are talking about an event that began in the past and ends in the present. Am means that something is happening now whereas have been means that it covers the past as well. In this sentence the past has to be taken into account also which the present perfect tense does. I hope this explains my reasoning.
Regards,

Last edited by Meme; Wednesday, October 21, 2015 at 01:33 AM. Reason: missed a word
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