Q.S.Why did industrial revolution begin in England?what were da implications of this development for england''s rule in da world...
plzz seniors need few points

i do not remember the answer right now ,, but the first part of the answer is available in P.C thomas book ( why was revolution first in england?) the second part of the answer is too obvious...

before the revolution ,france was the supreme power in the world. once the industrial revolution began in england , england had more money , more army and more weapons to fight the french army. take the case of napoleonic wars. there were five coalitions formed to defeat the french, every time it was england alone that survived onslaught from the french army . why? because of england's naval power. naval power means state of the art ships, these ships were made indigenously in england.

these are some the points. rest you can expand. its been six months since i have touched the books , otherwise i could have added more

why England could not defeat France even having more strong army especially naval power. in Napoleonic wars did the Britiain defeat France??????

yes eventually england prevailed in 1815...in all the coalitions too ,,it was only england that stood against french power..austria was defeated everytime , and all other members too ...similarly during the seven years war...france's power in india, canada and at sea was demolished by the english army ..why as all this possible? because of the money and technology

the French revolutionary war was fought by 15 coalition forces against alone France, if GB was so much powerfull, why couldnt she fight alone against France?

first of all there were not 15 coalition forces..maximum were 5 .. secondly ..the reasons for a prolonged french revolutionary war were manifold.
i can discuss those too. you must know that during the initial phase of war m britain was complacent and wasted money by giving it to partners who used the money to settle differences between them. so money was wasted ( but where did this money come from ? why was only britain distributing money ? because it was economically strong ) the other reason was that everyone thought that france was weak and could be defeated easily. so complacency caused britain dearly , but still britain survived attacks from napoleon . this was in the 18th century. if it was in the 17th century then britain would not have dared to attack france or make a coalition against it

i hope i have made myself clear. otherwise your free to ask again

no it was not the coaliation of 5 countries but of 15 countries. u can consult with the book '"A Text Book of Modern European History" by Gourage W Southgate. page No.289, last paragraph. here he has given important notes of the entire chapter

1st coalition :austria,prussia,GB,spain,italian states,dutch republic
2nd coalition:Russia, Great Britain, Austria, Portugal, The Ottoman Empire and the Kingdom of Naples
3rd coalition:Britain joined by Russia, Austria and Sweden
4th coalition:Austrian and Britain only


if you sum up all these countries ,may be you will get 15 countries. but in anyone coalition the countries were less than 15.
moreover you must remember that america is a superpower right now and is also country with the highest GDP. but still it has not been able to win in iraq or afghanistan. but that does not mean that economically afghanistan or iraq have surpassed america.

it was 1st coalition which was made in 1793,
total countries were 15 including all these big powers.

i do not know which book are you referring to, but i have a book named. a textbook of modern english history by southgate book2. here in the first coalition 5 names are mentioned.
anyway do as your heart pleases the issue here was not about the number of partners in coalition but economic power of britain which i have already answered.

peace!