World Organisations

Questionnaire: World Organisations

1. When was the League of Nations formed?
A. 1914
B. 1920
C. 1935
D. 1945

Answer
b


2. The United Nations Organisation came into existence on:
A. 24th October,1945
B. 24th December, 1945
C. 30th August,1945
D. None of the above

Answer
a


3. Charter of the UN was signed on June 26, 1945 at:
A. Geneva
B. San Francisco
C. California
D. Paris

Answer
b


4. Admission of State to the membership of the UN is made by:
A. simple majority of the General Assembly
B. unanimous vote of the General Assembly
C. Security Council
D. two-thirds majority of the General assembly members present and voting, on the recommendation of the Security Council

Answer
d


5. The General Assembly meets regularly :
A. once a month
B. after every three months
C. twice a year
D. once a year

Answer
d


6. Which one is not an official language of UNO?
A. English
B. Chinese
C. French
D. Hindi

Answer
d


7. Official languages of the UNO are:
A. English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabic and Spanish
B. English and French
C. English, Chinese, French and Russian
D. English, Hindi, Chinese and Russian

Answer
a


8. How many major organs does the UN have?
A. Six
B. Four
C. Five
D. Seven

Answer
a


9. The UNO Headquarters is at:
A. Hague
B. Geneva
C. Paris
D. NewYork

Answer
d


10. The number of permanent members of the Security Council is:
A. 9
B. 11
C. 5
D. 15

Answer
c


11. Some members of the UNO enjoy Veto power which is exerciseable in:
A. Trusteeship Council
B. Security Council
C. General Assembly
D. International Court of Justice

Answer
b


12. The term ‘veto' in the context of the UN Security Council refers to:
A. unanimous aceptance of a proposal
B. rejection of a proposal by a majority of the members
C. aceptance of a proposal by a majorityofthemembers
D. powers vested in the permanent members torejectaproposal

Answer
d


13. The Secretary-General of the UNO is elected every :
A. 2years
B. 1 year
C. 5years
D. 4 years

Answer
c


14. The Chairmanship/Presidency of the UN Security Council rotates among the Council Members:
A. every month
B. every three months
C. every six months
D. every year

Answer
a


15. Which one of the following is not a part of the United Nations Organisation ?
A. General Assembly
B. UNESCO
C. IMF
D. ILO

Answer
c


16. Which one of the following countries does not enjoy veto power at the UNO?
A. France
B. USA
C. Japan
D. China

Answer
c


17. When did India become the member of the UNO?
A. In1960
B. In 1950
C. In1945
D. In 1952

Answer
c


18. Which of the following is not a UN agency?
A. World Health Organisation
B. International Labour Organisation
C. International Monetary Fund
D. Food and Agricultural Organisation
E. International Red Cross Society

Answer
e


19. Which of the following agencies related to the United Nations was in existence before the Second World War?
A. Food and Agricultural Organisation
B. International Labour Organisation
C. World Health Organisation
D. International Monetary Fund

Answer
b


20. Which UN body deals with the population problem?
A. UNESCO
B. UNFPA
C. UNDP
D. UNICEF

Answer
b


21. The United Nations agency setup to improve the standards of education and strengthen international cooperation in this sphere is called:
A. UNICEF
B. UNEF
C. UNEDA
D. UNESCO

Answer
d


22. Single out the false statement pertaining to the International Court of Justice :
A. its judges are elected
B. its decisions are not enforceable
C. it is the Principal Judicial organ of the United Nations
D. in case of non-implementation of the decision further grievances are not feasible

Answer
b


23. The International Court of Justice holds its sessions at its headquarters in:
A. Lake Success
B. Amsterdam
C. Hague
D. Paris

Answer
c


24. The international Human Rights Convention adopted by the United Nations in 1990 relates to the:
A. Children
B. Migrant workers
C. Stateless persons
D. Disabled people

Answer
a


25. Which of the following organisations, through its various programmes, works to achieve complete economic union of its members?
A. BENELUX Economic Union
B. Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
C. Asian Productivity Organisation(APO)
D. Asian and Pacific Council(ASPAC)

Answer
a


26. UNCTAD is a body which promotes :
A. Tourism and Development
B. Trade and Development
C. Trade and Commerce
D. None of theabove

Answer
b


27. Which of the following exactly denotes the full name of the organisation commonly known as the ‘World Bank’?
A. International Bank for Economic Operation (BEC)
B. Council for Mutual Economic Asistance(CMEA)
C. International Monetary Fund(IMF)
D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development(IBRD)

Answer
d


28. When was the World Bank founded?
A. 1941
B. 1913
C. 1946
D. 1915

Answer
c


29. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is located at:
A. New York
B. London
C. Washington
D. Geneva

Answer
c


30. When was the International Monetary Fund established?
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1950
Answer

a


31. The soft loan affiliate of the World Bank is:
A. Asian Development Bank
B. International Monetary Fund
C. International Development Association
D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Answer
c


32. The main function of the World Bank is to :
A. reduce trade gaps and inequalities
B. asist in projects in developing countries
C. give loans for development purposes
D. help meet the countries’ balance of payment problems

Answer
c


33. The headquarters of ‘International Monetary Fund’ is at:
A. Washington
B. Paris
C. Geneva
D. New York

Answer
a


34. Which of the following is true about the International Monetary Fund?
A. It is an agency of United Nations
B. It can lend money to any country in theworld
C. It can lend money to the State Government of a country
D. It can lend money to the member countries only

Answer
d


35. All of the following organisations have their headquarters at Washington DC, except:
A. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
B. International Monetary Fund
C. United Nations Children’s Fund
D. International Finance Corporation
Answer

c


36. All of the following organisations have their headquarters at Geneva, except:
A. Food and Agricultural Organisation
B. International Labour Organisation
C. World Health Organisation
D. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

Answer
a


37. The headquarters of all the following international organisations are based at Vienna, except :
A. United Nations Industrial Development Organisation
B. Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
C. United Nations Development Programme
D. International Atomic Energy Agency

Answer
c


38. The headquarters of a few agencies related to the UN are located in Vienna, which is in:
A. Austria
B. Belgium
C. Denmark
D. Sweden

Answer
a


39. G-7 refers to a group of:
A. less developed countries with in the UNCTAD
B. developed countries within the World Bank
C. developed countries within the IMF
D. less developed countries within the UN

Answer
c


40. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) came into force on:
A. Jan1,1948
B. Jan 21,1948
C. April,20,1948
D. Feb.10, 1948

Answer
a


41. The headquarters of GATT was at:
A. New York
B. Geneva
C. London
D. Rome

Answer
b


42. A group of Asian nations joined hands in August 1983 to launch a new forum. What is it known as?
A. South Asian Asociation for NuclearPeace Conference
B. Indian Ocean Nations Council
C. South Asian Regional Cooperation
D. South East Asian Countries Cooperation

Answer
c


43. South Asian Asociation for Regional Co-operation (SAARC)was formed in:
A. December 1985
B. October 1985
C. January 1986
D. February 1985

Answer
a


44. Which one of the following statements regarding SAARC countries is correct?
A. No SAARC country other than India has a common border with another member country, SriLanka and Maldives being islands
B. All the countries with which India has border are members of SAARC, SriLanka and Maldives being islands
C. Except Sri Lanka and Maldives, all the SAARC countries have common border with China.
D. Except Sri Lanka and Maldives no other SAARC country has islands as part of its territory

Answer
a


45. Apart from India, Pakistan and Bangladesh which other countries complete the SAARC membership?
A. Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives
B. Nepal, Bhutan, Burma, Maldives
C. Nepal, Burma, Bhutan, Afghanistan
D. Bhutan,Sri Lanka, Nepal

Answer
a


46. The Universal Postal Union was formed in the year:
A. 1919
B. 1857
C. 1874
D. 1876

Answer
c


47. In which year the Organisation of African Unity (OAU) was constituted?
A. 196
B. 1965
C. 1970
D. 1963

Answer
d


48. World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) was formed in the year:
A. 1967
B. 1976
C. 1965
D. 1968

Answer
a


49. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at:
A. Kuala Lumpur
B. Bangkok
C. Manila
D. Singapore

Answer
b


50. The International Atomic Energy Asociation (IAEA), which was established in 1957 under the aegis of the United Nations, has its headquarters at:
A. Washington
B. London
C. Paris
D. Vienna

Answer
d


51. The headquarters of the ILO is at :
A. Hague
B. NewYork
C. Paris
D. Geneva

Answer
d


52. The headquarters of the UN University is located at:
A. Geneva
B. Bon
C. Tokyo
D. New York

Answer
c


53. The headquarters of International Red Cross is at:
A. Geneva
B. New York
C. Stockholm
D. Paris

Answer
a


54. Amnesty International, a worldwide human rights organisation, has its headquarters at:
A. Paris
B. New York
C. Geneva
D. London

Answer
d


55. The OPEC member countries number:
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

Answer
d


56. The member countries of the Commonwealth :
A. agree to come to defence of each other if attacked by any outsider
B. have democratic governments on the same pattern as in UK
C. are fre to folow independent policies
D. share the same wealth and hence the name

Answer
c


57. Of the three founder countries of non-alignment, India is one: the other two countries are:
A. Burma and Indonesia
B. Yugoslavia and Indonesia
C. Yugoslavia and Egypt
D. Burma and Egypt

Answer
c


58. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
A. Indonesia
B. Singapore
C. Cambodia
D. Sri Lanka

Answer
d


59. The United Nations Day is observed annually on:
A. November 14
B. October 24
C. October 2
D. October 30

Answer
d


60. What is September 8 observed as every year ?
A. World Peace Day
B. International Cooperation Day
C. World Health Day
D. International Literacy Day

Answer
b



61. 10th December is regarded as a red-letter-day for the whole world because it is the:
A. International Labour Day
B. Human Rights Day
C. United Nations Day
D. Day of Victory over the Nazis

Answer
d


62. Which day is observed as the World Health Day every year?
A. April 7
B. July 4
C. August 6
D. December 4

Answer
a


63. The International Day of Peace is celebrated by the UNO on:
A. first Monday of January
B. second Friday of August
C. third Tuesday of September
D. fourth Saturday of December

Answer
c


64. WTO came into existence in:
A. January 1995
B. January 1996
C. January 1997
D. January 1990

Answer
a


65. The headquarters of WTO is at :
A. New York
B. Washington
C. Paris
D. Geneva

Answer
d

General Science



1. The energy released on account of the motion of a body is termed as the:
A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. relative velocity
D. None of these

Answer
b

2. Kilowatt is the measuring unit of:
A. power
B. current
C. work
D. energy

Answer
a

3. In which unit can we measure food energy?
A. Calorie
B. Keloin
C. Joule
D. Erg

Answer
a

4. The conservation of energy principle refers to the fact that:
A. it is essential not to waste natural gas and oil, for these are limited in supply
B. solar heating makes use of the sun’s energy, which would otherwise be wasted
C. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
D. nuclear-power plants recycle spent fuel

Answer
c

5. One HP is equal to ___ kg per meter per second.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 10

Answer
c

6. When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with uniform:
A. Speed
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Momentum

Answer
b

7. ‘Parsec’ is a unit of:
A. weight
B. time
C. speed
D. distance

Answer
d

8. Knot is unit of speed of which of the following?
A. Ship
B. Aeroplane
C. Light rays
D. Sound waves

Answer
a

9. Assume that - A denotes narrow wheel, A wider wheel, B denotes small free wheel, B larger free wheel, C denotes small gear wheel, C larger gear wheel, - in a rural area where there are sandy tracts, it will be advisable to use a bicycle with :
A. A, B, C
B. A, B, C
C. A, B, C
D. A, B, C

Answer
b

10. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is:
A. 12
B. 49
C. 9
D. 4

Answer
c

11. If rubber tyres replace wheels in bullock carts then:
1. speed of bullock cart increases
2. load carrying capacity increases
3. the capacity of bullock to pull the cart at a stretch increases
4. None of the above

A. 1 & 3correct
B. 2 & 3correct
C. 1 & 2correct
D. 1, 2 & 3correct

Answer
d

12. Rolling a drum is easier than pulling it along a road beacuse:
A. rolling causes less friction
B. friction is more when the object is rolled
C. pulling willl damage the drum
D. None of the above

Answer
a

13. Walking on ice is more difficult than walking on concrete because ice:
A. gives less friction
B. gives more friction
C. is very cold and as such blood gets frozen up
D. being soft, one can get bogged down into it while walking

Answer
a

14. What should be done by a car driver if he is caught on the way by a severe thunder storm and lightening?
A. He should leave the wheel and lie down on the ground
B. He should remain inside the car with its window glasses all pulled up
C. Park the car beneath a tall tree
D. Just bite a piece of cotton firmly in between the two rows of teeth

Answer
a

15. Ball bearings are used in cycles and scooters to:
A. reduce the area of contact between the two surfaces in contact
B. reduce friction between wheel and axle
C. increase friction between wheel and axle
D. reduce friction between ground and vehicle

Answer
b

16. How do the centripetal forces pull a body?
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Inwards
D. Outwards

Answer
c

17. When milk is churned, the cream separates from it due to the:
A. cohesive force
B. frictional force
C. centrifugal force
D. gravitational force

Answer
c

18. A body in circular motion requires:
A. centrifugal force
B. centripetal force
C. inertial force
D. gravitational force

Answer
b

19. The rising of ink to the point of nib in a fountain pen is due to:
A. surface tension
B. capillary action
C. gravitational attraction
D. None of the above

Answer
b

20. As one goes up the mountain one suffers from nose bleeding sometimes. The reason is that
A. blood pressure decreases at high altitudes
B. blood pressure increases at high altitudes
C. as one starts going up, the pressure of the blood capillaries becomes higher than the outside pressure
D. None of the above

Answer
c

21. Birds get thrust (forward motion) and lift (upward motion) from:
A. flapping of wings
B. twisting of feathers
C. shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades
D. air sacs

Answer
a

22. Small rain-drops are spherical in shape because of:
A. surface-tension
B. gravity
C. atmospheric pressure
D. evaporation

Answer
a

23. The cross-section of the water column in the given figure is circular. The diameter of the bigger limb is 4 cm and that of the smaller limb 2 cm. A force of 40kg is placed at the bigger end. What force will be required at the smaller end to keep the level of water balanced?
A. 20 kg
B. 80 kg
C. 160 kg
D. 10 kg

Answer
d

24. A body partially floats in water when:
A. the volume of the displaced water is greater than the volume of the body
B. a body immersed in fluid loses as much in weight as the weight of the displaced volume of the fluid
C. the mass of the displaced water is greater than the mass of the body
D. None of the above
Answer
b

25. Which of the following is used in diesel engine?
1. Cylinder
2. Spark plug
3. Piston

Choose your answer from the codes
given below :
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3

Answer
d

26. Iron is heavier than water, still the ship floats on the sea because
A. weight of the ship is less than the weight of water in the sea
B. weight of the ship is more than sea water
C. weight of the ship is less than the weight of water that the ship displaces
D. weight of ship is equal to the weight of water that ship displaces

Answer
c

27. The volume of an object will be maximum when it is:
A. spherical
B. rectangular
C. cone shaped
D. triangular

Answer
a

28. The mass of the body is different from its weight because:
A. mass is variable quantity whereas weight is constant
B. mass is constant but weight increases as the body moves from the poles to the Equator
C. mass varies very little at different places where as weight varies a lot
D. mass is a measure of the quantity of matter where as weight is a force

Answer
d

29. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?
A. volume
B. mass
C. weight
D. density
Answerc

30. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is:
A. increased
B. neutralised
C. decreased
D. the same
Answer
b

31. A certain amount of cold air will weigh heavier than the same amount of dry air because of the:
A. greater number of molecules at low temperature
B. lesser number of molecules at high temperature
C. greater energy of molecules at high temperature
D. lesser energy of molecules at high temperature

Answer
a

32. A free-floating astronaut ‘A’ pushes another free-floating astronaut ‘B’ in space. The mass of ‘A’ is greater than that of ‘B’. The force exerted by astronaut ‘A’ on astronaut ‘B’ will be:
A. equal to zero
B. equal to the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’
C. greater than the force exerted by ‘B’on ‘A’
D. les than the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’

Answer
a

33. On the lunar surface:
A. weight remains same but mass varies
B. mass ramains same but weight varies
C. both of them vary
D. None of the above is true

Answer
b

34. The effect of circular movements on a person in a satellite around the earth is that:
A. his mass becomes nil while the weight remains the same
B. his mass remains constant while weight becomes zero
C. his mass goes up while the weight remains unchanged
D. None of the above
Answerb

35. A wooden block is floating in water. If 4/5 of its volume is immersed in water and volume of the water displaced is 800ml, the volume of the block is:
A. 1140 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml

Answer
d

36. A balloon filled with air is weighted (W) so that it just floats in water. When it is further pushed a short distance in water it will:
A. sink to the bottom
B. stay at the depth where it stands submerged
C. not come back to its original position
D. sink down a little further but will not reach the bottom

Answer
d

37. Oil, water and gas can be present in a well in the ascending order of:
A. water, oil, gas
B. gas, water, oil
C. water, gas, oil
D. oil, water, gas

Answer
a

38. Mercury is preferred to water in barometer because:
A. mercury is good conductor of heat
B. mercury is bright and hence its level can be easily read
C. mercury is available in pure form
D. mercury has high density and low surface tension

Answer
d

39. An aeroplane rises up:
A. on account of upward thrust of air
B. as the air over the aeroplane is denser than that under the plane
C. as the pressure over its wings is more than the pressure under them
D. as its nose is pointed upwards

Answer
a

40. A boat filed with some stones is floating in water. If the stones are dropped into the water, the level of the water will:
A. rise
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. insufficient data to predict

Answer
b

41. When a ship enters sea from a river, its level:
A. remains same
B. rises
C. may or may not change
D. decreases

Answer
c

42. There is a hole in the boat through which water is seeping into the boat. Just before the boat capsizes :
A. water level in the boat will increase
B. water level will decrease
C. water level will remain constant
D. None of these

Answer
a

43. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. How will the water level be affected when the ice cube melts?
A. The level of water will go up
B. The level of water will go down
C. The level of water will remain unchanged
D. In the beginning the level will go up but later on the level will go down

Answer
c

44. Fathom is the unit of:A. sound
B. depth
C. distance
D. frequency

Answer
b

45. Ordinary clocks lose time during summer. It is so because the length of their pendulum:
A. increases and so does the length of time
B. increases and therefore its duration of time decreases
C. decreases and therefore the length of time increases
D. decreases and therefore the length of time decreases

Answer
a

46. A body is attached to a spring balance suspended from a stand. The reading on the balance is 0.5 kg. The two together are detached from the stand and allowed to fall through a height. While falling the reading in the balance will be:
A. zero
B. less than 0.5kg but not zero
C. more than 0.5 kg depending on the height
D. 0.5 kg
Answer
a

47. Two bars of gold and silver are weighed by spring balance and read 200 gms each. These bars are then suspended in a liquid and weighed by using the same balance. What could be derived?
A. Gold will weigh more than silver
B. Silver will weigh more than gold
C. Both the bars will be equal in weight
D. Nothing can be said, unless the density of the liquid is known

Answer
a

48. Which one of the following will take place when a watch based on oscillating spring is taken to a deep mine?
A. It will become slow
B. It will become fast
C. It will indicate the same time as on earth
D. It will stop working

Answer
a

49. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the:
A. pulsars
B. while dwarfs
C. atomic clocks
D. quartz clocks

Answer
c

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Physical Geography


Earth is represented nearly perfect by:
A. globe
B. maps
C. topography sheets
D. three-dimensional maps

Answer
a

2. Satellites put in orbit by man have discovered that the earth is:
A. exactly round
B. exactly oval
C. orange-shaped
D. pear-shaped

Answer
d

3. The shape of the Earth is:
A. spherical
B. circular
C. tetrahedral
D. geoid

Answer
d

4. The average diameter of the earth is approximately:
A. 25,000 miles
B. 10,000 miles
C. 8,000 miles
D. 15,000 miles

Answer
c

5. The circumference of the earth is:
A. 25,000 kms
B. 25,000 miles
C. 8,000 metres
D. 8,000 kms

Answer
b

6. The three basic movements of earth are:
A. galatic, revolution and rotation
B. katabatic, revolution and rotation
C. adiabatic, revolution and rotation
D. adiabatic, katabatic, galatic

Answer
a

7. Rotation refers to:A. turning of the earth on its own axis
B. earth movement around the centre of the galaxy
C. earth movement around the sun
D. movement of the planets

Answer
a

8. When earth is closest to the sun, it is at:
A. perihelion
B. aphelion
C. kames
D. helion

Answer
a

9. When earth is farthest from the sun, it is at:
A. cirque
B. xerophitic
C. aphelion
D. perihelion

Answer
c

10. The earth is closest to the sun at a distance of about 91,500,000 miles on:
A. January 3
B. December 25
C. December 24
D. June 21

Answer
a

11. The earth is farthest from the sun at a distance of about 94,500,000 miles on:
A. July 4
B. June 22
C. March 2
D. September 22

Answer
a

12. The earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of:
A. 23.5°
B. 66.5°
C. 33.5°
D. 45.5°

Answer
a

13. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation with respect to stars is:
A. 23h 56m 4.09s
B. 24h
C. 24h 1m 0.1s
D. 23h

Answer
a

14. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation with respect to the sun is:
A. 23h 56m 4.09s
B. 24h
C. 24h 1m 0.1s
D. 23h

Answer
b

15. When earth completes one rotation in 23h 56m 4.09s, it is called a:
A. Sidereal day
B. Star day
C. Sun day
D. Lunar day

Answer
a

16. The northern tip of the earth is inclined towards the sun on:
A. June 21
B. December 2
C. March 21
D. September 22

Answer
c

17. When days and nights are of equal length on September 23, this position is known as:
A. equinox
B. occluded
C. veering
D. kames

Answer
a

18. How many days does the earth take to complete a circle around the sun?
A. 365
B. 365.5
C. 365.25
D. 366

Answer
c

19. The earth’s movement in its orbit is from:
A. West to East
B. East to West
C. North to South
D. South to North

Answer
a

20. The southern tip of the earth is inclined towards the sun on:
A. June 2
B. December 2
C. September 2
D. March 22

Answer
c

21. The sun rays on March 21 and September 23 strike with an angle of 90° on:
A. 0° latitude
B. 23.5° latitude
C. 66.5° latitude
D. 45.5° latitude

Answer
c

22. The sun rays strike on June 21 with an angle of 90° on the:
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Arctic Circle
D. Great Circle

Answer
a

23. The sun rays on December 2 strike with an angle of 90°on the:
A. Tropic of Cancer
B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Antarctic Circle
D. Equator

Answer
b

24. Insolation is:
A. solar radiation
B. earth radiation
C. satellite radiation
D. lunar radiation

Answer
a

25. Intensity and duration of insolation are major factors that determine seasons. It varies due to:
A. inclination of axis and revolution
B. rotation
C. revolution
D. earth’s distance from sun

Answer
a

26. Earth’s annual revolution around the sun causes:
A. seasons
B. day and night
C. rainfall distribution on the globe
D. differing lengths of day and night in different places

Answer
d

27. Which of the following was not a leap year?
A. 1896
B. 1908
C. 1900
D. 1904

Answer
c

28. Generally temperature decreases with increase in:
A. latitude
B. longitude
C. sclerophyllous
D. altitude

Answer
a

29. Assertion (A): Only half of the moon’s surface is directly visible from the earth.Reason (R): The period of rotation of the moon on its axis is equal to the period of its revolution of earth.

A. A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
B. A and R are true and R correctly explains A
C. Both A and R are false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer
b

30. Which one of the following best explains the occurrence of solar eclipse?
A. When sun is in between moon and earth
B. When earth is in between moon and sun
C. When moon comes between sun and earth on a new moon day
D. When moon comes between sun and earth on a full moon day

Answer
c

31. Which part of the sun is visible during a total solar eclipse?
A. Corona
B. Chromo sphere
C. Photosphere
D. No part is visible

Answer
a

32. Lunar Eclipse is caused when:
A. the sun and the moon and the earth are in a line
B. the earth comes between the sun and the moon
C. the sun and the earth are on either side of the moon
D. the sun comes between the earth and the moon

Answer
b

33. When does lunar eclipse occur?A. On half moon
B. On quarter moon
C. On full moon
D. On new moon

Answer
c

34. The full moon rises in the:
A. South
B. North
C. East
D. West

Answer
c

35. Assertion (A) : Eclipses can not occur on all full moon and new moon days.Reason (R): The moon revolves in an elliptical orbit round the earth.
A. A and R are true but R does not explain A
B. Both A and R are false
C. A and R are true and R correctly explains A
D. A is true but R is false

Answer
b

36. The longest circle which can be drawn on the earth surface passes along:
A. Circle of Arctic
B. Equator
C. Tropic of Cancer
D. Tropic of Capricorn

Answer
b

37. An imaginary circle which passes through the centre of the earth on its surface is called:
A. Great circle
B. Arctic circle
C. Antarctic circle
D. Equator

Answer
a

38. The imaginary parallel lines running from East to West are:
A. latitudes
B. longitudes
C. altitudes
D. prime meridian

Answer
a

39. The equator divides the earth into two hemispheres named:
A. North and South
B. East and West
C. North-South and East-West
D. South-West and North-East

Answer
a

40. The end point of the imaginary axis is called:
A. Pole
B. Point
C. Selva
D. Cirque

Answer
a

41. The imaginary lines running from North to South are called:
A. latitudes
B. longitudes
C. parallels
D. altitudes

Answer
b

42. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of:
A. Axis of the Earth
B. Equator
C. North Pole
D. South Pole

Answer
b

43. Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on a map which connect places of equal:
A. atmospheric pressure
B. humidity
C. rainfall
D. temperature

Answer
d

44. Seasonal contrasts are maximum in:
A. Mid latitudes
B. Low latitudes
C. High latitudes
D. Subtropics

Answer
a

45. Lines drawn on a map through places having equal height above sea level are called:
A. Contours
B. Isobars
C. Isotherms
D. Isotopes

Answer
a

46. Which longitude is known as the Prime Meridian?
A. 0° longitude
B. 0° E longitude
C. 0° W longitude
D. 0° latitude

Answer
a

47. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in:
A. kms from the Equator
B. angles from the Equator
C. angles from the Poles
D. kms from Poles

Answer
b

48. Which of the following statements about meridians and equator is true?
A. Meridians are imaginary lines parallel to equator
B. Meridians and equator converge at the two poles
C. Meridians and equator never meet each other
D. Meridians are perpendicular to the equator

Answer
d

49. The longitude of a place on a clear night sky can be determined by measuring the angle which the:
A. Observer, Venus and Pole-star make among them
B. Pole-star makes with the Observer
C. Pole-star, Observer and Saturn make among them
D. Observer makes with the moon

Answer
b

50. The altitude at which the geo-stationary satellite is placed is:
A. 5,000 kms
B. 12,000 kms
C. 24,000 kms
D. 36,000 kms

Answer
d

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Women Politcal Leaders


Angola -------- Queen Nzingha 1582-1663
Argentina ----- President Cristina Fernandez de Kirchner 2007–Present
Argentina ----- President Isabel Perón 1974–1976


Bahamas ---- Governor-General Dame Ivy Dumont 2001–2005
Bangladesh ---- Prime Minister Khaleda Zia 1991–1996, 2001–2006
Bangladesh ---- Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina Wajed 1996–2001
Barbados ---- Governor-general Dame Nita Barrow 1990–1995
Belize ---- Governor-general Dame Minita Gordon 1981–1993
Bermuda ---- Premier Pamela Gordon 1997–1998
Bermuda ---- Premier Jennifer Smith 1998–2003
Bolivia ---- Prime Minister Lidia Gueiler 1979–1980
Brazil ---- Queen Maria I 1815–1816
Brazil ---- Empress Isabel (regent) 1871–1872, 1876–1877, 1887–1888
Burundi ---- Prime Minister Sylvie Kinigi 1993–1994
Byzantium ---- (Roman Empire) Empress Theodora 1055–1056


Cambodia ---- Queen Ang Mey 1835–1840, 1844–1845
Cambodia ---- Queen Kossamak (joint ruler) 1955–1960
Canada ---- Governor-general Jeanne Sauvé 1984–1990
Canada ---- Prime Minister Kim Campbell 1993 (4 months)
Canada ---- Governor-general Adrienne Clarkson 1999–2005
Canada ---- Governor-general Michaëlle Jean 2005–
Central African Republic ---- Prime Minister Elizabeth Domitien 1974–1976
Cherokee Nation ---- Wilma Mankiller 1985–1995
Chile ---- President Michelle Bachelet 2006–
China ---- Empress Wu Chao 655–705
China ---- Dowager Empress Tsu-Hsi 1861–1908
China ---- Dowager Empress Longyu 1911–1912

Denmark ---- Queen Margaret I 1387–1412
Denmark ---- Queen Margrethe II 1972–present
Dominica ---- Prime Minister Mary Eugenia Charles 1980–1995


Easter Island Paramount ---- Chief Koreto Puakurunga 1868–1869?
Easter Island Paramount ---- Chief Carolina 1869?–1888?
Egypt ---- Queen Hatshepsut 1501–1498 B.C.
Egypt ---- Queen Tiye 1415–1340 B.C.
Egypt ---- Queen Nefertiti 1372–1350 B.C.
Egypt ---- Queen Nefertari 1292–1225 B.C.
Egypt ---- Queen Arsinoe II (joint ruler) 279–270 B.C.
Egypt ---- Queen Berenice 81–80 B.C.
Egypt ---- Queen Cleopatra VII 51–30 B.C.
Egypt ---- Empress Zauditu 1916–1930
Ethiopia ---- Empress Candace 332 B.C.
Ethiopia ---- Empress Zaudita 1916–1930


Faeroe Islands ---- Prime Minister Marita Petersen 1993–1994
Finland ---- President Tarja Halonen 2000–present
Finland ---- Prime Minister Anneli Jäätteenmäki 2003 (2 months)
France ---- Prime Minister Edith Cresson 1991–1992


Georgia ---- Queen Tamara 1184–1212
Germany ---- Chancellor Angela Merkel 2005–
Ghana ---- Queen Mother Yaa Asantewa 1863-1923
Great Britain ---- Boadicea, Queen of the Iceni c. 26–61
Great Britain ---- Queen Jane (Lady Jane Grey) 1553 (9 days)
Great Britain ---- Queen Mary I 1553–1558
Great Britain ---- Queen Elizabeth I 1558–1603
Great Britain ---- Queen Mary II (joint ruler) 1689–1702
Great Britain ---- Queen Anne 1702–1714
Great Britain ---- Queen Victoria 1837–1901
Great Britain ---- Queen Elizabeth II 1952–present
Great Britain ---- Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher 1979–1990
Grenada ---- Governor Dame Hilda Louisa Bynoe 1967–1972
Guyana ---- Prime Minister Janet Jagan 1997
Guyana ---- President Janet Jagan 1997–1999


Haiti ---- Provisional President Ertha Pascal-Trouillot 1990, 1991
Haiti ---- Prime Minister Claudette Werleigh 1995–1996
Hawaii ---- Queen Liliuokalani 1891–1893
Hungary ---- Queen Mary 1382–1387
Hungary ---- Queen Elizabeth 1439–1440
Hungary ---- Queen Maria Theresa 1740–1780


Iceland -----President Vigdis Finnbogadóttir 1980–1996
India --------Prime Minister Indira Gandhi 1966–1977, 1980–1984
Indonesia ---------President Megawati Sukarnoputri 2001–2004
Ireland ---------President Mary Robinson 1990–1997
Ireland -------President Mary McAleese 1997–present
Israel and Judah -----------Queen Athaliah 842–837 B.C.
Israel---------- Prime Minister Golda Meir 1969–1974
Italy ----------Queen Theodelinda 590
Italy ----------Queen Joanna I of Naples 1343–1381
Italy -------Queen Maria of Sicily 1377–1402
Italy ---------Queen Joanna II of Naples 1414–1435


Jamaica ---------Prime Minister Portia Simpson Miller 2006–
Japan ----------Empress Suiko Tenno 593–628
Japan ----------Empress Kogyoku 642–645
Japan ---------Empress Jito 686–697
Japan--------- Empress Gemmyo 703–724
Japan -Empress Koken (abdicated) 749–758
Japan -----Empress Shotuku-Koken 764–770
Japan -----Empress Toshi-ko 1762–1771


Latvia ------President Vaira Vike-Freiberga 1999–present
Lesser Armenia ---- Queen Zabel 1219–1226
Lesotho Paramount ------------Chief 'Mantsebo Amelia 'Matsaba Sempe 1941–1960
Liberia ---President Ellen Johnson-Sirleaf 2006–
Lithuania ---------Prime Minister Kazimiera Prunskiene 1990–1991
Luxembourg ---------Grand Duchess Marie Anne de Bragance (regent) 1908–1912
Luxembourg -------Grand Duchess Marie-Adélaïde 1912–1919
Luxembourg -------Grand Duchess Charlotte 1919–1964


Madagascar ----------Queen Ranavalona I 1828–1861
Madagascar ---Queen Rasoaherina 1863–1868
Madagascar ---Queen Ranavalona II 1868–1883
Madagascar -----Queen Ranavalona III (deposed) 1883–1897
Maldives -------Sultan Amina Rani Kilagefanu 1757–1759
Malta -----------President Agatha Barbara 1982–1987
Micronesia------ High Commissioner of Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands Janet J. McCoy 1981–1986
Monaco------ Princess Louise-Hippolyte 1731


Netherlands ------Queen Wilhelmina (abdicated) 1890–1948
Netherlands ------Queen Juliana 1948–1980
Netherlands ----Queen Beatrix 1980–present
Netherlands Antilles ---Prime Minister Lucinda da Costa Gomez-Matheeuws 1977
Netherlands Antilles ---Prime Minister Maria Liberia-Peters 1984–1986, 1988–1993
Netherlands Antilles ---Prime Minister Susanne Camelia-Romer 1993, 1998–1999
Netherlands Antilles ---Prime Minister Mirna Louisa-Godett 2003–2004
New Caledonia ----------President Marie-Noëlle Thémereau 2004–present
New Zealand -------Governor-general Dame Catherine Tizard 1990–1996
New Zealand ------Governor-general Dame Silvia Cartwright 2001–2006
New Zealand -------Prime Minister Jenny Shipley 1997–1999
New Zealand ----Prime Minister Helen Clark 1999–present
New Zealand -----(Maori community) Queen Te Ata-i Rangi-Kahu Koroki Te Rata Mahuta Tawhiao Potatau Te Wherowhero 1966–2006
Nicaragua------- President Violeta Barriosde Chamorro 1990–1997
Nigeria ---------Queen Amina of Zaria 1588-1589
Norway ------Queen Margaret 1387–1412
Norway -----Prime Minister Gro Harlem Brundtlandt 1981, 1986–1989, 1990–1996


Pakistan--- Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto 1988–1990, 1993–1996
Panama --------President Mireya Moscoso 1999–2004
Peru Prime--- Minister Beatriz Merino 2003 (6 months)
Philippines --------President Maria Corazon Aquino 1986–1992
Philippines ------President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo 2001–present
Poland --------Queen Hedwige 1384–1399
Poland --------Premier Hanna Suchocka 1992–1993
Portugal -------Queen Maria I 1777–1816
Portugal --------Queen Maria II 1826–1828, 1834–1853
Portugal -----Prime Minister Maria de Lourdes Pintasilgo 1979 (149 days)


Roman Empire--Empress Irene 797–802
Russia --------Empress Catherine I 1725–1727
Russia ------Empress Anna Ivanovna 1730–1740
Russia ---------Empress Elizabeth Petrovna 1741–1762
Russia ----------Empress Catherine II (The Great) 1762–1796
Rwanda --------Prime Minister Agathe Uwilingiyimana 1993–1994


St. Lucia -----Governor-General Dame Pearlette Louisy 1997–present
São Tomé and Príncipe ----Prime Minister Maria das Neves 2002–2004
São Tomé and Príncipe ---Prime Minister Maria do Carmo Silveira 2005–present
Scotland-------------- Queen Mary Stuart (executed) 1542–1567
Seminole--------- Nation Betty Mae Jumper 1960–1969
Senegal ---------Mame Madior Boye 2001–2002
Sheba -----Queen Makeda 960 B.C.
Spain -------Queen Dona Urraca 1109–1126
Spain ---------Queen Juana I 1274–1307
Spain ----------Queen Juana II 1328–1349
Spain ----------Queen Dona Blanca 1425–1441
Spain ------Queen Isabella I (joint ruler) 1474–1504
Spain --------Queen Catalina de Albret 1481–1512
Spain ------Queen Isabella II 1833–1868
Sri Lanka --------Queen Anula 47–42 B.C.
Sri Lanka------- Queen Sivali 35 B.C.
Sri Lanka-------- Queen Lilavati 1197–1200, 1209–1212
Sri Lanka ------------Queen Kalyanavati 1202–1208
Sri Lanka -----Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike 1960–1965, 1970–1977, 1994–2000
Sri Lanka ---------President Chandrika Kumaratunga 1994–2005
Sudan ------------Amanirenas, Queen of Cush late 1st century B.C.
Sweden ----------Queen Christina (abdicated) 1632–1654
Sweden ----------Queen Ulrica Eleonora (abdicated) 1718–1720
Switzerland -------President Ruth Dreifuss 1999


Tonga Chief --------Tupoumahe'ofo 17?–1793
Tonga Queen -------Salote Tubou III 1918–1965
Turkey Prime -------Minister Tansu Çiller 1993–1996
Ukraine Prime -------Minister Yulia Timoshenko 2005


Wallis Ruler -----Toifale 1825
Wallis Ruler -----Falakika Seilala Lavelua 1858–1869
Wallis Ruler -----Amelia Tokagahahau Aliki Lavelua 1869–1895
Wallis Ruler -----Aloisia Lavelua 1953–1958
Yugoslavia -----Premier Milka Planinc 1982–1986
Zululand -------Queen Nandi 1778–1826

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Forms of Government

1)Aristocracy:
Govt by noble people.

2)Autocracy:
Govt by one person.

3)Authoritarian: E
xtremely powerful Govt.

4)Bureaucracy:
Govt that is carried on through officers.

5)Caliphate:
Govt that is carried on through a caliph.

6)Democracy:
Govt of the people, by the people, for the people.

7)Dictatorship:
Govt by one dictator.

8)Depotic:
Govt by the tyrant.

9)Monarchy:
Govt by a monarch.

10)Oligarchy:
Govt by small group.

11)Plutocracy:
Govt by rich people.

12)Theocracy:
Govt that is carried on through religious people.

13)Totalitarian:
A one party Govt.

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Speed of light in different units

299,792,458 -------meter/second
1,079,252,848.8--- kilometers/hour
670,616,629-------miles/hour
186,282-----------miles/second

Length of time for light to travel..

One foot --- 1.0 nanosecond
One meter --- 3.3 nanoseconds
One km---- 3.3 microseconds
One mile--- 5.4 microseconds
Around Earth's equator--- -----------------------0.13 seconds
From Earth to geostationary orbit and back---- 0.24 seconds
From Earth to the moon ----------------------- 1.3 seconds
From Earth to the sun------------ 8.3 minutes
To Earth from Alpha Centauri - 4.4 years
From edge to edge of the Milky Way ----------- 100,000 years



1 Second = 1000000000 Nanoseconds

1 Second = 1000000 microseconds

-------------------------------------------------------------

Speed Of Sound

761.6- miles per hour
330 ---meters per second
1225 --kilometers per hour

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Human Body


1. What is the body temperature of a normal man?

A. 81.1oC
B. 36.9oC
C. 98.6oC
D. 21.7oC

2. Which of the following helps in clotting of blood?

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

3. Total volume of blood in a normal adult human being is

A. 5-6 liters
B. 3-4 liters
C. 8-10 liters
D. 10-12 liters

4. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the

A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Kidneys
D. Heart

5. How many bones are there in an adult human being?

A. 210
B. 260
C. 206
D. 300

6. The pancreas secretes

A. Insulin
B. Bile juice
C. Peptic juice
D. None of these

7. Tibia is a bone found in the

A. Skull
B. Arm
C. Leg
D. Face

8. The largest part of the human brain is the

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. None of these

9. What is the main component of bones and teeth?

A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium phosphate
C. Calcium sulphate
D. Calcium nitrate

10. The main constituent of hemoglobin is

A. Chlorine
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. None of these

11. The main function of the kidney is

A. To control blood pressure
B. To control body temperature
C. To remove waste product from the body
D. To help in digestion of food

12. The function of hemoglobin is

A. Transportation of oxygen
B. Destruction of bacteria
C. Prevention of anemia
D. Utilization of energy

13. Which of the following glands secrete tears?

A. Lachrymal
B. Pituitary
C. Thyroid
D. Pancreas

14. Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A. Thyroid
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. None of these

15. Which is the largest organ in the human body?

A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Skin
D. Kidney

16. A person of which of the following blood groups is called a universal donor?
A. O
B. AB
C. A
D. B

17. Which gland in the human body is called the master gland?
A. Pancreas
B. Thyroid
C. Pituitary
D. Spleen

18. How many bones are there in a newly born infant?

A. 206
B. 230
C. 280
D. 300

19. Which of the following have maximum calorific value?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Proteins
D. Vitamins

20. Which of the following vitamins promote healthy functioning of eyes in human beings?
A. Vitamin B
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin D

21. The average heartbeat per minute in a normal man is
A. 50
B. 70
C. 80
D. 100

22. A person with which of the following blood groups can receive blood of any group?
A. A
B. AB
C. B
D. O

23. Malaria is a disease which effects the
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Spleen
D. Kidneys

24. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?
A. Small pox
B. Tuberculosis
C. Malaria
D. Cholera

25. Medulla oblongata is a part of human
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Liver
D. Sex organ

26. Myopia is a disease connected with
A. Ears
B. Eyes
C. Lungs
D. Brain

27. Leukemia is a disease of the
A. Lungs
B. Blood
C. Skin
D. Nerves

28. Short-sightedness can be corrected by using
A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Convex-concave lens
D. Concave-convex lens

29. Trachoma is a disease of the
A. Liver
B. Eyes
C. Lungs
D. Kidneys

30. Match the following
Column I Column II

A. Beriberi 1. Vitamin A
B. Scurvy 2. Vitamin B
C. Rickets 3. Vitamin C
D. Night Blindness 4. Vitamin D

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 3 1 4

31. Typhoid and cholera are typical examples of
A. Infectious diseases
B. Air-borne disease
C. Water-borne disease
D. None of these

32. Pyorrhea is a disease of the
A. Nose
B. Gums
C. Heart
D. Lungs

33. Lack of what causes diabetes.
A. Sugar
B. Insulin
C. Calcium
D. Vitamins

34. Appendix is appendix is a part of
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Stomach
D. Liver

35. Match the following columns
Column I Column II

A. Cataract 1. Bones
B. Jaundice 2. Eyes
C. Diabetes 3. Liver
D. Arthritis 4. Pancreas

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 3 2 4 1

36. Bronchitis is a disease of which of the following organs?
A. Blood
B. Bladder
C. Liver
D. Respiratory tract

37. ECG is used for the diagnosis of aliments of
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Kidneys
D. Lungs

38. Biopsy is done on
A. Tissues taken from a dead body
B. Tissues taken form a living body
C. Blood from veins
D. Blood from arteries

39. Barium is used for
A. Checking blood group
B. X-ray of alimentary canal
C. X-ray of brain
D. None of these

40. Dialysis is used for the treatment of
A. Kidney failure
B. Heart weakness
C. Brain diseases
D. None of these

41. Insulin is injected into the intestines by
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Stomach
D. Gall bladder

42. Lock Jaw, i.e., difficulty in opening the mouth is a symptom of
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Tetanus
D. Diphtheria

43. Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
A. Plague-rats
B. Rabies-dog
C. Tapeworm-pig
D. Poliomyelitis-monkey

44. Match the following columns
Column I Column II

A. Air-borne 1. Tetanus
B. Water-borne 2. Tuberculosis
C. Contact 3. Cholera
D. Wound 4. Syphilis

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 2 4 1

(d) 4 3 2 1

45. Ricketts is a disease of the
A. Bones
B. Tissue
C. Muscles
D. Blood

46. Which of the following statements is correct
A. Pulmonary artery carries pure blood
B. Pulmonary artery carries impure blood
C. Pulmonary vein carries impure blood
D. None of these

47. Lungs are situated in the
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pericardial cavity
C. Buccal cavity
D. Thoracic cavity

48. The human cell contains
A. 44 chromosomes
B. 48 chromosomes
C. 46 chromosomes
D. 23 chromosomes

49. Enzymes help in
A. Respiration
B. Digestion of food
C. Immune system
D. Reproduction

50. Food is normally digested in the
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Small intestines
D. Large intestines



Answers

1. b 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. c
6. a 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. b
11. c 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. c
16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. c
21. b 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. b
26. b 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. c
31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a
36. d 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. a
41. a 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. a
46. b 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. c

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Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions - New York (ACABQ)
Consultative Committee on Programme and Operational Questions - Geneva, Switzerland (CCPOQ)
Economic Commission for Europe - Geneva, Switzerland (ECE)
Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations - Rome, Italy (FAO)
Information Systems Coordination Committee - Geneva, Switzerland (ISCC)
Inter-agency Committee on Sustainable Development - New York, USA (IACSD)
International Atomic Energy Agency - Vienna, Austria (IAEA)
International Bureau of Education - Geneva, Switzerland (IBE)
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International Civil Aviation Organization - Montreal, Canada (ICAO)
International Civil Service Commission - New York, USA (ICSC)
International Computing Centre - Geneva, Switzerland (ICC)
International Court of Justice - The Hague, The Netherlands (ICJ)
International Fund for Agricultural Development - Rome, Italy (IFAD)
International Institute on Ageing - Valetta, Malta (INIA)
International Labour Organization - Geneva, Switzerland (ILO)
International Monetary Fund - Washington, USA (IMF)
International Research and Training Institute for the Advancement of Women - Santo Domingo, Dominican Republic (INSTRAW)
International Telecommunication Union - Geneva, Switzerland (ITU)
International Trade Centre UNCTAD/WTO - Geneva, Switzerland (ITC)
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United Nations Postal Administration - Vienna, Austria (UNPA)
United Nations Research Institute for Social Development - Geneva, Switzerland (UNRISD)
United Nations Staff College - Turin, Italy (UNSC)
United Nations University - Tokyo, Japan (UNU)
United Nations Volunteers - Bonn, Germany (UNV)
World Bank - Washington, USA (IBRD)
World Food Programme - Rome, Italy (WFP)
World Health Organization - Geneva, Switzerland (WHO)
World Intellectual Property Organization - Geneva, Switzerland (WIPO)
World Meteorological Organization - Geneva, Switzerland (WMO)
World Tourism Organization - Madrid, Spain
World Trade Organization - Geneva Switzerland (WTO)

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"Rishtoon ki khoobsurti aik dosry ki baat ko bardasht kerna hay.
Be-aib insaan talaash mat kero, warna akele reh jao gay."
Hazrat Ali (R.A)

Alloys


Gun Metal
Copper 90%, Tin 10%

Steel
Iron 99 % , Carbon 1%

Stainless Steel
Iron with 0.1-2.1% carbon upto 27% chromium or 20% tunsten or 15% Nickal

Petwar
Tin,Antimony & Copper

Bronze
Copper, Tin and Zinc

German Silver
Copper,Zinc and Nickel

Electrum
Gold & Silver

18 carat Gold
Gold 75%, Silver & copper 25%

Dentist Amalgam
70% Mercury 30% Copper

Yellow Brass
Copper 67% Zinc 33%

Spiegeleisen
Iron , 15% manganese and carbon and silicon

Brass
Copper & 38% Zinc

Nichrome
Nickel & Chromium

Plumbers Solder
Lead and tin

Mu Metal
77% nickel, 15% iron, plus copper and molybdenum

An amalgam
refers to alloys of mercury.

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1. Question: A man with a load jumps from a high building. What will be the load experienced by him?

Answer: Zero, because while falling, both the man and the load are falling at the same acceleration i.e. acceleration due to gravity.


2. Question: A piece of chalk when immersed in water emits bubbles. Why?

Answer: Chalk consists of pores forming capillaries. When it is immersed in water, the water begins to rise in the capillaries and air present there is expelled in the form of bubbles.


3. Question: Why does a liquid remain hot or cold for a long time inside a thermos flask?

Answer: The presence of air, a poor conductor of heat, between the double glass wall of a thermos flask, keeps the liquid hot or cold inside a flask for a long time.


4. Question: Why does a ball bounce upon falling?

Answer: When a ball falls, it is temporarily deformed. Because of elasticity, the ball tends to regain its original shape for which it presses the ground and bounces up (Newton's Third Law of Motion).


5 Question: Why is standing in boats or double decker buses not allowed, particularly in the upper deck of buses?

Answer: On tilting the centre of gravity of the boat or bus is lowered and it is likely to overturn.


6. Question: Why is it recommended to add salt to water while boiling dal?

Answer: By addition of salt, the boiled point of water gets raised which helps in cooking the dal sooner.


7. Question: Why is it the boiling point of sea water more than that of pure water?

Answer: Sea water contains salt, and other impurities which cause an elevation in its boiling point.


8. Question: Why is it easier to spray water to which soap is added?

Answer: Addition of soap decreases the surface tension of water. The energy for spraying is directly proportional to surface tension.


9. Question: Which is more elastic, rubber or steel?

Answer: Steel is more elastic for the same stress produced compared with rubber.

10. Question: Why is the sky blue?

Answer: Violet and blue light have short waves which are scattered more than red light waves. While red light goes almost straight through the atmosphere, blue and violet light are scattered by particles in the atmosphere. Thus, we see a blue sky.


11. Question: Why Does ink leak out of partially filled pen when taken to a higher altitude?

Answer: As we go up, the pressure and density of air goes on decreasing. A Partially filled pen leaks when taken to a higher altitude because the pressure of air acting on the ink inside the tube of the pen is greater than the pressure of the air outside.


12. Question: On the moon, will the weight of a man be less or more than his weight on the earth?

Answer: The gravity of the moon is one-sixth that of the earth; hence the weight of a person on the surface of the moon will be one-sixth of his actual weight on earth.


13. Question: Why do some liquid burn while others do not?

Answer: A liquid burns if its molecules can combine with oxygen in the air with the production of heat. Hence, oil burns but water does not.


14. Question: Why can we see ourselves in a mirror?

Answer: We see objects when light rays from them reach our eyes. As mirrors have a shiny surface, the light rays are reflected back to us and enter our eyes.


15. Question: Why does a solid chunk of iron sink in water but float in mercury?

Answer: Because the density of iron is more than that of water bus less than that of mercury.


16. Question: Why is cooking quicker in a pressure cooker?

Answer: As the pressure inside the cooker increases, the boiling point of water is raised, hence, the cooking process is quicker.


17. Question: When wood burns it crackles. Explain?

Answer: Wood contains a complex mixture of gases and tar forming vapors trapped under its surface. These gases and tar vapors escape, making a cracking sound.


18. Question: Why do stars twinkle?

Answer: The light from a star reaches us after refraction as it passes through various layers of air. When the light passes through the earth?s atmosphere, it is made to flicker by the hot and cold ripples of air and it appears as if the stars are twinkling.


19. Question: Why is it easier to roll a barrel than to pull it?

Answer: Because the rolling force of friction is less than the dynamic force of sliding friction.


20. Question: If a feather, a wooden ball and a steel ball fall simultaneously in a vacuum, which one of these would fall faster?

Answer: All will fall at the same speed in vacuum because there will be no air resistance and the earth?s gravity will exert a similar gravitational pull on all.


21. Question: When a man fires a gun, he is pushed back slightly. Why?

Answer: As the bullet leaves the nozzle of the gun?s barrel with momentum in a forward direction, as per Newton's Third Law of Motion, the ejection imparts to the gun as equal momentum in a backward direction.


22. Question: Ice wrapped in a blanket or saw dust does not melt quickly. Why?

Answer: Both wood and wool are bad conductors of heat. They do not permit heat rays to reach the ice easily.


23. Question: Why do we perspire on a hot day?

Answer: When the body temperature rises, the sweat glands are stimulated to secrete perspiration. It is nature's way to keep the body cool. During the process of evaporation of sweat, body heat is taken away, thus giving a sense of coolness.


24. Question: Why does ice float on water but sink in alcohol?

Answer: Because ice is lighter than water it floats on it. However, ice is heavier than alcohol and therefore it sinks in alcohol.


25. Question: Why do we perspire before rains?

Answer: Before the rain falls, the atmosphere gets saturated with water vapors; as a result, the process of evaporation of sweat is delayed.


26. Question: Why does a thermometer kept in boiling water show no change in reading after 1000C?

Answer: The boiling point of water is 1000C. Once water starts boiling at this temperature, thermometer records no change in temperature. The quantity of heat supplied is being utilized as latent heat of evaporation to convert the water at boiling point into vapour.


27. Question: Why do we bring our hands close to the mouth while shouting across to someone far away?

Answer: By keeping hands close to mouth the sound is not allowed to spread (Phenomenon of diffraction of sound) in all direction, but is directed to a particular direction and becomes louder.


28. Question: Why does a corked bottle filled with water burst if left out on a frosty night?

Answer: Because of low temperature the water inside the bottle freezes. On freezing it expands, thereby its volume increases and pressure is exerted on the walls.


29. Question: Why is a small gap left at the joint between two rails?

Answer: To permit expansion of rails due to heat generated by friction of a moving train.


30. Question: Why cannot a copper wire be used to make elements in electric heater?

Answer: Copper melts at 108.30C and forms a black powder on reacting with atmospheric oxygen. For heater elements a metal should have more resistance to produce heat.


31. Question: Why are water or mercury droplets always round when dropped on a clean glass?

Answer: The surface of a liquid is the seat of a special force as a result of which molecules on the surface are bound together to form something like a stretched membrane. They tend to compress the molecules below to the smallest possible volume, which causes the drop to take a round shape as for a given mass he sphere has minimum volume.


32. Question: Why does a balloon filled with hydrogen rise in the air?

Answer: Weight of hydrogen is less than the weight of air displaced by it. In balloons hydrogen is normally filled because it is lighter than air.


33. Question: Why do we lean forward while climbing a hill?

Answer: In order to keeps the vertical line passing through our centre of gravity always between our feet, which is essential to attain equilibrium or stability.


34. Question: Why does smoke curl up in the air?

Answer: Smoke contains hot gases which being lighter in weight, follows a curved path because of the eddy currents that are set up in the air.


35. Question: Why does an electric bulb explode when it is broken?

Answer: The bulb encompasses partial vacuum and as it breaks, air rushes in causing a small explosion.


36. Question: Why does a man fall forward when he jumps out of a running train or bus?

Answer: He is in motion while in the train or bus. When he jumps out, his feet comes to rest while touching the ground but his upper portion which is still in motion propels him forward.


37. Question: Why does an ordinary glass tumbler crack when very hot tea or milk is poured in it?

Answer: When a hot liquid is poured into a tumbler, the inner layer of the tumbler gets heated, it expands before the outer layer and an unequal expansion of both layers causes the tumbler to crack.


38. Question: Why is a compass used as an indicator of direction?

Answer: The magnetic needles of a compass under the influence f the earth?s magnetic field lie in a north-south direction. Hence, we can identify direction.


39. Question: Why is water from a hand pump warm in winter and cold in summer?

Answer: In winter, the outside temperature is lower than that of water flowing out of the pump, and therefore, the water is warm. Whereas in summer, the outside temperature is higher than the water of the pump, and therefore, it feels cold.


40. Question: Why is a rainbow seen after a shower?

Answer: After a shower, the clouds containing water droplets act like a prism through which the white light is dispersed producing a spectrum.


41. Question: Why does a swimming pool appear less deep than is actually is?

Answer: The rays of light coming from the bottom of the pool pass from a denser medium (water) to a rarer medium (air) and are refracted (bend away from the normal). When the rays return to the surface, they form an image of the bottom of the pool at a point, which is little above the real position.


42. Question: Why is one?s breath visible in winter but not in summer?

Answer: In winter, water vapor contained in the breath condenses into small droplets, which become visible but in summer they are quickly evaporated and not seen.


43. Question: Why doesn?t the electric filament in an electric bulb burn up?

Answer: Firstly, because is made of tungsten which has a very high melting point (34100C) whereas the temperature of the filament required to glow is only 2700oC. Secondly, oxygen is absent since the bulb is filled with an inert gas which does not help in burning.


44. Question: Why does blotting paper absorb ink?

Answer: Blotting paper has fine pores, which act like capillaries. When a portion of blotting paper is brought in contact with ink, ink enters the pores due to surface tension (capillary action f liquids) and is absorbed.


45. Question: Why does a small iron sink in water but a large ship float?

Answer: The weight of water displaced by an iron ball is less than its own weight, whereas water displaced by the immersed portion of a ship is equal to its weight (Archimedes? Principle).


46. Question: Why does ice float on water?

Answer: The weight of the ice block is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the immersed portion of the ice.


47. Question: Why does moisture gather outside a tumbler containing cold water?

Answer: The water vapour in the air condenses on cooling and appears as droplets of water.


48. Question: Why does kerosene float on water?

Answer: Because the density of kerosene is less than that of water. For the same reason cream rises in milk and floats at the top.


49. Question: Why is the water in an open pond cool even on a hot summer day?

Answer: As the water evaporates from the open surface of a pond, heat is taken away in the process, leaving the surface cool.


50. Question: Why is it less difficult to cook rice or potatoes at higher altitudes?

Answer: Atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes is low and boils water below 100C. The boiling point of water is directly proportional to the pressure on its surface.


51. Question: Why is it difficult to breathe at higher altitudes?

Answer: Because of low air pressure at higher altitudes the quantity of air is less, and so that of oxygen.


52. Question: Why are winter nights and summer nights warmer during cloudy weather than when the sky is clear?

Answer: Clouds being bad conductors of heat do not permit radiation of heat from land to escape into the sky. As this heat remains in the atmosphere, the cloudy nights are warmer.


53. Question: Why is a metal tyre heated before it is fixed on wooden wheels?

Answer: On heating, the metal tyre expands by which its circumference also increases. This makes fixing the wheel easier and therefore cooling down shrinks it; thus fixing the tyre tightly.


54. Question: Why is it easier to swim in the sea than in a river?

Answer: The density of sea water is higher; hence the up thrust is more than that of river water.


55. Question: Who will possibly learn swimming faster-a fat person or a thin person?

Answer: The fat person displaces more water which will help him float much more freely compared to a thin person.


56. Question: Why is a flash of lightening seen before thunder?

Answer: Because light travels faster than sound, it reaches the earth before the sound of thunder.


57. Question: Why cannot a petrol fire be extinguished by water?

Answer: Water, which is heavier than petrol, slips down permitting the petrol to rise to the surface and continue to burn. Besides, the existing temperature is so high that the water poured on the fire evaporates even before it can extinguish the fire. The latter is true if a small quantity of water is poured.


58. Question: Why does water remain cold in an earthen pot?

Answer: There are pores in an earthen pot which allow water to percolate to the outer surface. Here evaporation of water takes place thereby producing a cooling effect.


59. Question: Why do we place a wet cloth on the forehead of a patient suffering from high temperature?

Answer: Because of body?s temperature, water evaporating from the wet cloth produces a cooling effect and brings the temperature down.


60. Question: When a needle is placed on a small piece of blotting paper which is place on the surface of clean water, the blotting paper sinks after a few minutes but the needle floats. However, in a soap solution the needle sinks. Why?

Answer: The surface tension of clean water being higher than that of a soap solution, it cans support the weight of a needle due to its surface tension. By addition of soap, the surface tension of water reduces, thereby resulting in the sinking of the needle.


61. Question: To prevent multiplication of mosquitoes, it is recommended to sprinkle oil in the ponds with stagnant water. Why?

Answer: Mosquitoes breed in stagnant water. The larvae of mosquitoes keep floating on the surface of water due to surface tension. However, when oil is sprinkled, the surface tension is lowered resulting in drowning and death of the larvae.


62. Question: Why does oil rise on a cloth tape of an oil lamp?

Answer: The pores in the cloth tape suck oil due to the capillary action of oil.


63. Question: Why are ventilators in a room always made near the roof?

Answer: The hot air being lighter in weight tends to rise above and escape from the ventilators at the top. This allows the cool air to come in the room to take its place.


64. Question: How does ink get filled in a fountain pen?

Answer: When the rubber tube of a fountain pen immersed in ink is pressed, the air inside the tube comes out and when the pressure is released the ink rushes in to fill the air space in the tube.


65. Question: Why are air coolers less effective during the rainy season?

Answer: During the rainy reason, the atmosphere air is saturated with moisture. Therefore, the process of evaporation of water from the moist pads of the cooler slows down thereby not cooling the air blown out from the cooler.


66. Question: Why does grass gather more dew in nights than metallic objects such as stones?

Answer: Grass being a good radiator enables water vapour in the air to condense on it. Moreover, grass gives out water constantly (transpiration) which appears in the form of dew because the air near grass is saturated with water vapour and slows evaporation. Dew is formed on objects which are good radiations and bad conductors.


67. Question: If a lighted paper is introduced in a jar of carbon dioxide, its flame extinguishes. Why?

Answer: Because carbon dioxide does not help in burning. For burning, oxygen is required.


68. Question: Why does the mass of an iron increase on rusting?

Answer: Because rust is hydrated ferric oxide which adds to the mass of the iron rod. The process of rusting involves addition of hydrogen and oxygen elements to iron.


69. Question: Why does milk curdle?

Answer: Lactose (milk sugar) content of milk undergoes fermentation and changes into lactic acid which on reacting with milk protein (casein) form curd.


70. Question: Why does hard water not lather soap profusely?

Answer: Hard water contains sulphates and chlorides of magnesium and calcium which forms an insoluble compound with soap. Therefore, soap does not lather with hard water.


71. Question: Why is it dangerous to have charcoal fire burning in a closed room?

Answer: When charcoal burns it produces carbon monoxide which is suffocating and can cause death.


72. Question: Why is it dangerous to sleep under trees at night?

Answer: Plants respire at night and give out carbon dioxide which reduces the oxygen content of air required for breathing.


73. Question: Why is a new quilt warmer than an old one?

Answer: In a new quilt the cotton is not compressed and as such it encloses more air which is bad conductor of heat. Therefore, it does not allow heat to pass.


74. Question: Curved rail tracks or curved roads are banked or raised on one side. Why?

Answer: Because a fast moving train or vehicle leans inwards while taking turn and the banked or raised track provides required centripetal force to enable it to move round the curve.


75. Question: How do bats fly in dark?

Answer: When bats fly they produce ultrasonic sound waves which are reflected back to them from the obstacles in their way and hence they can fly without difficulty.


76. Question: Water pipes often burst at hill stations on cold frosty nights. Why?

Answer: The temperature may fall below 00C during cold frosty nights which converts the water inside the pipes into ice, resulting in an increase in volume. This exerts great force on the pipes and as a result, they burst.


77. Question: Why are white clothes more comfortable in summer than dark or black ones?

Answer: White clothes are good reflectors and bad absorbers of heat, whereas dark or black clothes are good absorbers of heat. Therefore, white clothes are more comfortable because they do not absorb heat from the sun rays.


78. Question: Why does a rose appear red grass green in daylight?

Answer: Rose absorbs all the constituent colors of white light except red which is reflected to us. Similarly, grass absorbs all colors except green which is reflected t us.


79. Question: Why does a ship rise as it enters the sea from a river?

Answer: The density of sea water is high due to impurities and salts compared to river water as a result; the upthurst produced by the sea water on the ship is more than that of river water.


80. Question: Why are fuse provided in electric installations?

Answer: A safety fuse is made of a wire of metal having a very low melting point. When excess current flows in, the wire gets heated, melts and breaks the circuit. By breaking the circuit it saves electric equipment or installations from damage by excessive flow of current.


81. Question: Why is it easier to lift a heavy object under water than in air?

Answer: Because when a body is immersed in water, it experiences an upward thrust (Archimedes? Principle) and loses weight equal to the weight of the water displaced by its immersed potion, and hence, is easier to lift objects.


82. Question: If a highly pumped up bicycle tyre is left in the hot sunlight, it bursts. Why?

Answer: The air inside the tube increases in volume when heated up. As sufficient space for the expansion of the air is not available because the tube is already highly pumped, it may result in bursting of the tyre.


83. Question: What will be the color of green in blue light?

Answer: Grass will appear dark in color because it absorbs all other colors of the light except its own green color. The blue light falling on grass will be absorbed by it, and hence, it will appear dark in color.


84. Question: Why do two eyes give better vision than one?

Answer: Because two eyes do not form exactly similar images and he fusion of these two dissimilar images in the brain gives three dimensions of the stereoscopic vision

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