#1
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use of had.
1) The embarrassment of Bin Laden being found on Pakistani soil had humiliated Mr Zardari.
2) The embarrassment of Bin Laden being found on Pakistani soil humiliated Mr Zardari. Why we use had in sentence 1 we can also write the same sentence without using had??? |
#2
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i think this had is to enforce the occurrence of the event in past i.e past perfect
while the other one is the occurrence in near past i.e past indefinite.. |
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Muhammad humayun (Saturday, December 03, 2011) |
#3
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Had in 1st sentence is used to show an act in far past whereas in 2nd, it is near past. as ravian said.
sometimes u use had had also. i had had a nightmare which affected me badly. here it means "got" it is third form of has (possession) |
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Muhammad humayun (Saturday, December 03, 2011) |
#4
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Quote:
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#5
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Well, mostly journalists use the second type of expression. Really a DAWN style. May be to save time and space.
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