SBP also announce the NTS date regarding jobs

no one sure about this dear.its batter u first cnfrm from NTS head office.

dear frnds i appeard in two times but i got 53,56 mrks.. and now i am going to appear againg.. its very hrd to mnge the time...uuuuuffffffffff

Avoid Net Speak. Abide by Forum Rules and Policies.

__________________
To succeed,look at things not as they are,but as they can be.:)

@ Ali mallah

Dear Brother kindly send me material too as I'm also appearing in GAT, my ID is given in my profile.
Thanks in advance

I have sent you the material for GAT selected from GRE Big book.

__________________
Your attitude, not your aptitude, will determine your altitude...Zig Ziglar

Bro please send me to material of gre big book.

Sample Paper
GAT A

1. Business Education

2. Engineering & Technology



VERBAL

Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.

1. Ocean currents play a ____ role in setting long-term climate______.

A. vital … date
B. important … variations
C. major … patterns
D. unusual … changes

Each question below consists of a related pair of words, followed by five lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

2. LIQUID: HYDRAULICS::

A. motion: dynamics
B. water: hydroponics
C. data: statistics
D. music: eurythmics

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

3. PHYSICAL:

A. bodily
B. mental
C. material
D. corporeal

Read the passage to answer question 4-9

No actual black hole has yet been located or studied, but the concept has provided endless imaginative fodder for science fiction writers and endless theoretical fodder for physicists and astrophysicists.
Black holes are one of the more exotic theoretical manifestations of general relativity. The standard model for the formation of a black hole involves the collapse of a large star. For extremely massive stars that are four to five times the mass of our sun, the exclusion principle—the resistance between the molecular particles within the star as they are compressed—will not be strong enough to offset the gravity generated by the star's own mass. The star's increasing density will overwhelm the exclusion principle. What follows is runaway gravitational collapse. With no internal force to stop it, the star will simply continue to collapse in on itself, until it reaches a point of infinite density and zero volume, a phenomenon known as a singularity.
The star now disappears from the perceivable universe, like a cartoon character who jumps into a hole and pulls the hole in after him. What this process leaves behind is
a different kind of hole—a profound disturbance in spacetime, a region where gravity is so intense that nothing, not even light, can escape from it. Any object falling within the boundary of a black hole will be sucked in and will disappear from our universe forever.
What would happen to an object, such as an astronaut, as it vanished into the black hole? Physicists have been amusing themselves with this question for years. Most believe that the astronaut would be destroyed by the intense gravitational forces within the black hole, or would explode in a flash of gamma rays as he or she approached the singularity at the hole's core. Theoretically, an astronaut who managed to survive the passage would experience some very strange things, including acute time distortion, which would enable him or her to know, in a few brief seconds, the entire future of the universe in all its detail.

4. The word "fodder" is closest in meaning to

A. material
B. stories
C. support
D. problems

5. The opposing force between the molecular particles inside a star is called

A. general relativity
B. the exclusion principle
C. infinite density
D. a singularity

6. The word "offset" could best be replaced by

A. carry
B. arrange
C. overflow
D. counteract

7. It can be concluded from paragraph 3 that light

A. destroys a black hole
B. can barely reveal a black hole
C. does not exist near a black hole
D. originates in spacetime

8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the possible fate of an astronaut who falls into a black hole?

A. Experience of amusement
B. Death by gamma rays
C. Knowledge of the universe
D. Destruction by gravity

9. It can be inferred from the passage that black holes are

A. soon to be located and studied
B. a scientific impossibility
C. the key to the entire future of the universe
D. a source of inspiration and entertainment



ANALYTICAL REASONING

Questions 10-13

The supervisor of a commuter airline is schedul¬ing pilots to fly the round-trip from City X to City Y. The trip takes only two hours, and the airline has one round-trip flight in the morning and one round-trip flight in the afternoon, each day, Monday through Friday. Pilots must be sched¬uled in accordance with the following rules:

Only W, X, and Y can fly the morning flight.
Only V, X, and Z can fly the afternoon flight.
No pilot may fly twice on the same day.
No pilot may fly on two consecutive days.
X must fly the Wednesday morning flight.
Z must fly the Tuesday afternoon flight.

10. Which of the following must be true?

A. W flies the Monday morning flight
B. X flies the Monday afternoon flight
C. Y flies the Tuesday morning flight
D. W flies the Thursday morning flight
E. Z flies the Thursday afternoon flight

11. If X flies on Friday morning, which of the fol¬lowing must be true?

A. X does not fly on Monday afternoon
B. V flies on Friday afternoon
C. W flies Thursday morning
D. Y flies Thursday morning
E. Neither W nor Y flies Thursday morning

12. If X flies only one morning flight during the week, which of the following must be true?

A. W flies exactly two days during the week
B. X flies exactly three days during the week
C. Y flies only one day during the week
D. Z flies Monday afternoon and Friday afternoon
E. X flies more times during the week than V

13. If W is not scheduled to fly at all during the week, all of the following must be true EXCEPT

A. X flies on Monday morning
B. V flies on Monday afternoon
C. Y flies on Thursday morning
D. Z flies on Friday afternoon
E. X flies on Friday morning


There are those who claim that reductions in the spending on and deployment of weapons systems would result in a so-called "climate of peace," thereby diminishing the likelihood of armed conflict. The facts show otherwise. These self-proclaimed pacifists are either the victims or the propagators of a false argument.

14. Which of the following is an assumption under¬lying the conclusion of the passage above?

A. Military actions involving our forces can be instigated by any number of different factors
B. Our buildup of weapons systems and combat personnel has prevented our adversaries from increasing their own spending on defense
C. The increased defense spending of the past 10 years has lessened the need for signifi¬cant military expenditure in future decades
D. At the present time, state-of-the-art weapons systems and the augmentation of combat personnel are equally important to a nation's defense
E. An established correlation between greater spending on weapons systems and a decreased incidence of conflict will persist

Questions 15-18

An obedience school is experimenting with a new train¬ing system. To test the system, three trainers (Luqman, Mehreen, and Omama) and three dogs (Lassie, Mugs, and Onyx) are assigned to three different rooms, one trainer, and one dog per room. The initial assignment is as follows:

Room 1: Luqman and Lassie
Room 2: Mehreen and Mugs
Room 3: Omama and Onyx

The participants have learned five different com¬mands, each of which they will execute as soon as the command is given.

Command W requires the trainer in Room 1 to move to Room 2, the trainer in Room 2 to move to Room 3, and the trainer in Room 3 to move to Room 1.
Command X requires the dogs in Rooms 1 and 2 to change places.
Command Y requires the dogs in Rooms 2 and 3 to change places.
Command Z requires the dogs in Rooms 3 and 1 to change places.
Command A requires each of the dogs to go to the room containing the trainer it was matched with in the initial assignment.

15. If the participants in the initial assignment are given exactly one command, Command W, which of the following will be true in the resulting arrangement?

A. Omama and Mugs will be in the same room
B. Mehreen will be in Room 3
C. Mehreen and Lassie will be in the same room
D. Luqman will be in Room 3
E. Luqman and Onyx will be in the same room

16. Which of the following commands or series of commands will yield a final arrangement in which Onyx is in Room 2?

A. One call of W
B. Two calls of X
C. Two calls of W followed by one call of A
D. Two calls of W followed by one call of Z
E. Two calls of X followed by one call of Z

17. Which of the following sequences of com¬mands will yield a final arrangement in which Omama and Lassie are in Room 2?

A. X, Y, W
B. X, W, W
C. Z, W, A
D. X, Y, A, W
E. Z,W, W, X

18. Which of the following sequences of com¬mands could result in a final arrangement in which Mehreen and Onyx are in Room 1, Omama and Mugs are in Room 2 and Luqman and Lassie are in Room 3?

A. Z, W, X
B. W, Y, Z
C. W, A, Y, W
D. W, Z, W, X
E. X, Z, W, W

Should present trends continue, within five years it will be cheaper for audio enthusiasts to build their stereo systems around sets of sepa¬rate, high quality tuners and amplifiers, rather than around integrated tuners and amplifiers, known as receivers. While receivers have been considered the necessary compromise for those with budget restrictions, recent trends in retail pricing seem destined to change that percep¬tion. The average retail price of a high-quality tuner has declined at a rate of 20 percent each of the last two years, and the average retail price of a high-quality amplifier has declined at the rate of 35 percent for each of those years. At the same time, the average retail price of integrated receivers has declined only 12 percent.

19. In evaluating the claim made in the passage above, information about which of the follow¬ing would be most useful?

A. the average life expectancy of stereo tuners as compared to the average life expectancy of stereo amplifiers
B. the number of integrated receivers sold each year and the number of sets of sepa¬rate tuners and amplifiers sold each year
C. the present average retail price of an inte¬grated receiver and the present average retail price of a tuner and amplifier set
D. the number of separate tuner and amplifi¬er sets expected to be purchased over the next five years and the number of inte¬grated receivers expected to be purchased over the next five years
E. the percentage of audio enthusiasts who prefer separate tuner and amplifier sets to integrated receivers

QUANTITATIVE

20. Of the 20 people who won prize money, 7 have come forward to claim their winnings. What percent of the people have not yet appeared?

A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 42%
D. 65%
E. 70%

21. What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 10% and 15%?

A. 25%
B. 24%
C. 24.5%
D. 23.5%
E. 22%

22. If 27 = 9 , then n =

A. 4/3
B. 2
C. 8/3
D. 3
E. 8

23. If 2 . 2 = 3 , =?

A. 1.330
B. 1.750
C. 0.750
D. 1.585
E. 1.425

24. (a + 2i)(b – i) =

A. a + b - i
B. ab + 2
C. ab + (2b - a)i + 2
D. ab - 2
E. ab + (2b - a)i – 2

25. If the result obtained by multiplying a number, x, by a number 1 less than itself is 4 less than multiplying x by itself, then x =

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
26. Which of the following is closest to the square root of ?
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 0.6
D. 0.7
E. 0.8

27. The sum of five odd numbers is always:

A. even
B. divisible by three
C. divisible by five
D. a prime number
E. none of the above

28. If 3m < 48 and 2m > 24, then m could equal which of the following?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
E. 18

29. The area of a 2-foot-wide walk around a garden that is 30 feet long and 20 feet wide is

A. 104 sq. ft.
B. 216 sq. ft.
C. 680 sq. ft.
D. 704 sq. ft.
E. 1416 sq. ft.





Answer KEYS

Q #. Right Choice
1 C
2 A
3 B
4 A
5 B
6 D
7 C
8 A
9 D
10 E
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 E
15 B
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 D
21 D
22 C
23 D
24 C
25 D
26 D
27 E
28 C
29 B

Sample Paper
GAT B

1. Social Science

2. Arts & Humanities


VERBAL

Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.

1. I intend to remain true to my principles and _____ the _____ of my conscience.

A. obey … mandate
B. listen … voice
C. follow … dictates
D. explain … meaning

Each question below consists of a related pair of words, followed by five lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

2. ILLUSION: REALITY::

A. fancy: fact
B. sky: earth
C. ethereal: real
D. dream: work

3. CLASSROOM: TEACHER::

A. student: examination
B. bishop: diocese
C. employment: interview
D. ballot: election

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

4. Moral:

A. ethical
B. honest
C. vicious
D. upright









Read the passage to answer question 5-6

In the late seventeenth century, a transformation began that would make coffee one of the most popular drinks in Europe. The coffeehouse-meeting place of bankers, dissidents, artists, merchants, poets, wits, and rogues was in some ways the cradle of modern Europe. Coffee would change, in less than a century, from the drink of a few princes and a few paupers to the chief social beverage of the rising middle class.

5. The word “transformation” is closest in meaning to:

A. trend
B. event
C. change
D. custom

6. The word “rogues” refers to a type of:

A. beverage
B. person
C. book
D. coffee


ANALYTICAL REASONING

Questions 7-12

The consumer complaint department of a firm employs exactly six people who answer letters: G, H, I, J, K, and L. Every complaint letter received by the department is classified as either yellow or green. The following procedures for answering the letters are used:

Yellow letters are given first to G or H.
Green letters are given first to anyone of the following: G, J or I.

If a letter raises a problem that cannot be resolved by the person to whom it is given, it must be forwarded until it reaches someone who can resolve the problem and answer the letter. A letter must be forwarded as follows:

By G to I if the letter is yellow, but to J if the letter is green;
By H to either G or I;
By I to J if the letter is yellow, but to K if the letter is green;
By J to either I or K whether the letter is yellow or green;
By K to L whether the letter is yellow or green;
L answers every letter given to him,

7. Any of the following can be true EXCEPT:

A. G forwards a yellow letter to I
B. H forwards a yellow letter to G
C. H forwards a yellow letter to I
D. I forwards a yellow letter to K
E. J forwards a yellow letter to I

8. A green letter could reach L via which of the following sequences of people?

A. G to H to K
B. G to I to J
C. G to J to K
D. I to H to J
E. I to G to J to K

9. Any letter that reaches L must have been previously given to

A. G
B. H
C. I
D. J
E. K





10. Which of the following could be given to each of the six members of the consumer complaint department in turn?

A. A yellow letter that is first given to H
B. A yellow letter that is first given to G
C. A green letter that is first given to G
D. A green letter that is first given to I
E. A green letter that is first given to J

11. Any letter that reaches L must have been given to a minimum of how many members of the consumer complaint department before reaching L?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

12. If a member of the consumer complaint department is given a letter that he or she had previously given to some other member of the department, the person who is given the letter a second time could be

A. G
B. H
C. J
D. K
E. L

A staff person at an environmental research organization recently compared the number of deaths of a rare fish kept in captivity with the number of deaths of the same species of fish in a lake in the wild. Once a week the staffer would note the number of fish that had perished in both habitats. The data reflect, over a one-year period, that 33 of these rare fish died in captivity while more than 150 fish died in the wild. Thus, the staffer concluded it is far more dangerous for this species of fish to live in the wild than to be subject to the stresses of captivity.

13. Which of the following statistical procedures would best reveal the possible flaw in the conclusion above?

A. comparing death rates per thousand fish kept in captivity with the death rates per thousand fish in the wild
B. identifying the difference between the numbers of perished fish during this one-year period with the number that perished during the previous year
C. including data on the number of fish that were once in captivity, but later released to the wild
D. discriminating between deaths because of a sudden drop in water temperature from those caused by illness in each habitat
E. comparing the death rates of fish resulting from old age with those caused by predators in each habitat


QUANTITATIVE

14. During a certain week, a post office sold Rs.280 worth of 14-paisas stamps. How many of these stamps did they sell?

A. 20
B. 2,000
C. 3,900
D. 20,000
E. 39,200

15. What is the percent profit made on the sale of 1,000 shares of stock bought at Rs.10 per share and sold at Rs.12 per share?

A. 0.2%
B. 2%
C. 16 %
D. 20%
E. 25%

16. An hour-long test has 60 problems. If a student completes 30 problems in 20 minutes, how many seconds does he have on average for completing each of the remaining problems?

A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90
E. 100

17. x 12 equals

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 18
E. None of the above

18. A discount of 15 percent from a marked price produces a net price which is what percent of the marked price.

A. 0.15%
B. 0.85%
C. 15%
D. 85%
E. 115%



19. 5 is to 7 as x is to 35. x =

A. 7
B. 12
C. 25
D. 49

20. If 3 (x + 5y) = 24, find y when x = 3.

A. 1
B. 3
C.
D. 7



Answer KEYS

Q #. Right Choice
1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 B
7 D
8 C
9 E
10 A
11 B
12 C
13 A
14 B
15 D
16 C
17 C
18 D
19 C
20 A

Sample Paper
GAT C

1. Biological & Medical Science

2. Agriculture & Veterinary Sciences

3. Physical Sciences


VERBAL

Complete the sentences by choosing the most appropriate word, from the given lettered choices (A to D) below each.

1. Sensory cells _______ impulses by producing electrical signals.

A. responding
B. to respond
C. respond to
D. respond

2. _______ crude hydrocarbons into such products as gasoline and petrochemicals is at the heart of the petroleum industry.

A. refine
B. refined
C. to refining
D. refining

Each question below consists of a related pair of words, followed by five lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

3. CINNAMON: BARK::

A. pea: climber
B. nutmeg: seed
C. tea: shrub
D. coffee: bush

4. SNAKE: FANG::

A. vampire: teeth
B. rabbit: hutch
C. snail: antennae
D. action: fin

Choose the lettered word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

5. SIMULATED:

A. real
B. contrived
C. unassuming
D. false

Read the passage to answer question 6-8

Exercise and vitamin D increase the amount of calcium in your bones. You can get all the vitamin D you need from simply being outdoors for thirty minutes. Milk is fortified with vitamin D, and drinking nonfat milk gives you calcium, vitamins, and energy. However, if you decide to take supplemental vitamin D, 400 to 800 IU per day will safely prevent any deficiencies.

6. The word “fortified” is closest in meaning to

A. blended
B. flavored
C. irradiated
D. enhanced

7. The word “supplemental” is closest in meaning to

A. additional
B. special
C. natural
D. concentrated

8. The word “deficiencies” is closest in meaning to

A. abnormalities
B. insufficiencies
C. illnesses
D. excesses


ANALYTICAL REASONING

Questions 9-11

A spice farmer must harvest exactly five spices grown on her farm. The spices must be harvested consecutively, the harvest of one being completed before the harvest of the next begins. The five spices to be harvested are allspice, cloves, nutmeg, sage, and thyme.

Nutmeg must be harvested before thyme.
Cloves must be harvested immediately after allspice.
Sage must not be harvested first.

9. Which of the following is an acceptable order for the harvesting of the five spices?

A. nutmeg, sage, allspice, cloves, thyme
B. sage, nutmeg, thyme, allspice, cloves
C. allspice, sage, thyme, cloves, nutmeg
D. cloves, nutmeg, allspice, sage, thyme
E. allspice, cloves, thyme, sage, nutmeg

10. If nutmeg is the fourth spice harvested, which of the following must be false?

A. All spice is the first spice harvested.
B. Sage is harvested immediately after cloves.
C. Exactly one crop is harvested between sage and thyme.
D. Nutmeg is harvested immediately after cloves.
E. Thyme is the last spice harvested.

11. If sage is the second spice harvested, allspice must be which of the following?

A. the first or the third spice harvested
B. the first or the fourth spice harvested
C. the third or the fourth spice harvested
D. the third or the fifth spice harvested
E. the fourth or the fifth spice harvested

Questions 12-15

Individual members from eight animal species are to be chosen for a special exhibit habitat. The eight species are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W. Because of the way these animals interact, certain guidelines must be followed.

Animals that will fight cannot be placed in the habitat together.
Members of species V will fight with members of species S, T, and U.
A member of species R will fight with a member of species Q, but only if a member of species V is present.
If a member of species W is present, a member of species P will not fight with any animal.
If a member of species W is not present, a member of species P will fight with members of species Q and R.

No fights other than those described above will occur.
12. If V is chosen for the habitat, which of the following CANNOT also be chosen?

A. P
B. Q
C. T
D. R
E. W

13. If two other animals are to be added to a habitat containing a member of species Q and a member of species V in the habitat, which of the following could be those two animals?

F. members of species W and P
G. members of species R and P
H. members of species S and W
I. members of species W and R
J. members of species U and R

14. If two habitats are set up, one containing members of species P, Q, W, and V, and the other containing members of species S, U, R, and T, which animals could be switched one for the other without provoking any fights?

A. species W and U
B. species Q and R
C. species P and R
D. species V and S
E. species W and T

15. If S, P and R are chosen for the habitat, which of the following must also be chosen?

A. W
B. V
C. U
D. T
E. Q

Plant Y thrives in environments of great sunlight and very little moisture. Desert X is an environment with constant, powerful sunlight, and next-to-no mois¬ture. Although Plant Y thrives in the areas surrounding Desert X, it does not exist naturally in the desert, nor does it survive long when introduced there.

16. Which of the following would be most useful in explaining the apparent discrepancy above?

A. Desert X's climate is far too harsh for the animals that normally feed on Plant Y.
B. For one week in the fall, Desert X gets consistent rainfall.
C. The environment around Desert X is ideally suited to the needs of Plant Y.
D. Due to the lack of sufficient moisture, Desert X can support almost no plant life.
E. Plant Y cannot survive in temperatures as high as those normally found in Desert X.


QUANTITATIVE

17.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 12
E. 16

18. What was the original price of an item if a discount of 20 percent reduced the price to Rs.100?

A. Rs.80
B. Rs.120
C. Rs.125
D. Rs.150
E. Rs.250

19. The sum of 0.629, 4.3 and 2 is

A. 0.1259
B. 6.74
C. 12.59
D. 6.929

20. In a basket containing 180 apples, 9 are spoiled. What percent of the apples in the basket are not spoiled?

A. 95%
B. 90%
C. 50%
D. 25%
E. 20%

21. What is 5% of 20%?

A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 100%
D. 0.1

22. When -4 is added to -4, the sum is

A. -8
B. +8
C. -1
D. +1
E. +20


Answer KEYS

Q #. Right Choice
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 A
10 D
11 C
12 B
13 A
14 D
15 D
16 E
17 D
18 C
19 D
20 A
21 A
22 A

21. What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 10% and 15%?

A. 25%
B. 24%
C. 24.5%
D. 23.5%
E. 22%

D. 23.5 %